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Q: What did Britain and France do to appease Germany?
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How did France and Britain responded to Germany's expansion of territory?

France and Britain didn't did anything in an responce to Germany's expansion of territory. They didn't do anything when Germany re-conquerd the Rhineland.


Did Britain help France in world war 1?

No, France gave in to Germany, and Germany then took over France. We did not help them. Not in World War I, the war the question asks about. Britain joined France in its fight againt Germany during the first World War.


Who declares World War 2?

On 1 September 1939, Germany invaded Poland without a declaration of war. Britain and France had a defence agreement with Poland which stated that they would come to their aid if they were attacked. Britain and France then sent an ultimatum to Germany demanding that their troops withdraw from Poland. Germany ignored the ultimatum so on 3 September 1939, Britain and France declared war on Germany.


Who were the four central powers World War 1?

Germany, Britain, France and the USA.


What country was a victim of great Britain and France's policy of appeasement?

Czechoslovakia, which was invaded by Germany with permission from Britain and France given at the Munich Conference. You ask which country was a "victim" of Britain's and France's willingness to appease Hitler, but you are not understanding the basic facts. The Sudetenland wanted to be part of Germany because they were Germans and they were separated from Germany after World War 1. So they were glad to get reconnected to Germany. Hitler used the issue of Sudetenland against Czechoslovakia. Czechoslovakia (including Sudetenland) were not part of Germany before WW1, but part of Austria-Hungary. When Austria-Hungary was broken-up as result of WW1, then Hitler decided to seize German-speaking Austria and then create a crisis w/ Czechoslovakia. Czechoslovakia was seen as the victim of appeasement. By loosing the Sudetenland, they lost valuable territory rich in lignite, coal. So there was a victim - Czechoslavakia.

Related questions

Which country did Britain appease?

Germany


When did Nazis enter rhineland?

The Nazis wanted the Rhineland back. It belonged to Germany, not France. They got it back when Britain and France tried to appease the Nazis.


When did Britain and France appease with Germany?

this is because to gain your opponent why they wanted. and Britain and France wanted the Germany to give them what the wanted so that the will not pressure Germany and the said that the will give them what the want.Britain and France wanted the Germany to reparation/pay of the destroy of the country to them. Britain had a Naval power and they create their zone of safety with their fleets and destruction of the German fleets. The also wanted the colonies anathema and look after the league of nation they become independent . Britain and France wanted Germany to be punishment for the war the should be destroy everything that the had with them.


When did Great Britain and France war against Germany and why?

Great Britain and France declared war on Germany in 1939, because germany had invaded land that Great britain had to protect for france.


How were Britain and France draw in to war with Germany?

Britain and France had a small dick when Germany had HUGE dick


How long did Britain appease Hitler?

Until Germany invaded Poland on 1st September 1939.


When did France and great Britain declare war against Germany and why?

Great Britain and France declared war on Germany in 1939, because germany had invaded land that Great britain had to protect for france.


When did great Britain and France declare war against Germany and why?

Great Britain and France declared war on Germany in 1939, because germany had invaded land that Great britain had to protect for france.


What happen after Germany invaded Poland in 1939?

France and Britain declared war on Germany.


Do Great Britain France and Germany have unitary governments?

Great Britain and France have unitary governments; Germany has a federal government.


Why did France and Britain permit Germany to essentially take over most of Europe by 1940?

These two powers thought they could appease Germany by letting her have her demands. This pacifism/appeasement is known as the Munich Doctrine, named after the Munich Agreement, when Britain and France allowed Germany to annex parts of Europe. The allies let Germany grow in power, even though it violated the post-WWI treaties. Once powerful enough, Germany quickly took over Poland and France before there was any time to react.


Who attacked both Britain and northern France?

Germany