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What does Paul mean by imputed righteousness in Romans 4 verse 22?
Lilwolf53
Here (Romans 4) Paul takes up the case of Abraham because those who were teaching that Gentiles must become Jewish proselytes in order to be Christians based their claims on God's promise to Abraham, which were linked to the sign of circumcision: if one was not of the seed of Abraham by nature, he would have to become so by circumcision. Paul explains that the promise was given on the basis of Abraham's faith, while he was still uncircumcised. Thus, Abraham's heirs are those who have the same faith, rather than those who are circumcised. The grand thing to Abraham's life was his faith, not his circumcision. Paul goes on to say in v. 23-24 that it was not written for his (Abraham's) sake alone but for us also with the qualification that we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead. He's talking about faith here, not the law or any outward signs.
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Romans 2:1-5
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