He wrote almost exclusively in heightened or poetic language.
Latin
Zero. Shakespeare did not write novels--as a literary form they were almost unheard of in his day.
Cervantes chose to write in Spanish because that was the language his readers knew. Shakespeare wrote in English because that was the language his audiences understood. Italian writers wrote and still write in Italian because that is what language their readers read.
Professor Martin asked the class to read Shakespeare's Romeo and Juliet, as an introduction to the language Shakespeare used to write his plays.
Shakespeare's language was English. "And" in English is "and".
The full question is: What is true about the language that Shakespeare used to write Romeo and Juliet A It's blank verse B It was very popular among drama audiences in Shakespeare's time C It approximates the rhythm and sound of natural spoken language D All of these All of the above. It approximates the way people speak in normal conversation.
No, if they have hands then they can write as they understand the language in written form and not just oral form. If you can read a language then you can write it
Shakespeare played a major role in changing English theatre, drama and also English language. Shakespeare himself wrote with a vocabulary of roughly 17,000 words. He is well known for giving over 3000 words to the English language because he was the first author to write them down. Except for the writers of the Bible, Shakespeare is the most frequently quoted writer in English. By 1613, Shakespeare had helped to create a new grammar and a much wider vocabulary for the early form of modern English. With his genius for poetic technique, he vastly broadened range of the English language
Since everything Shakespeare wrote has at some time or another been published in book form, from one perspective he certainly did write books. Indeed he intended some of it, especially his long poems Venus and Adonis and The Rape of Lucrece to be published in book form.What you mean possibly is: "Why did William Shakespeare not write novels?" The reason is that novels were at that time a new form of writing that was rare and not fully developed. There was no money in them. Plays on the other hand were what Shakespeare was paid to write.
It approximates the way people speak in normal conversation
Shakespeare wrote in English, the same language I am using now. There is no such language as "Shakespearean language" or "Shakespeare language". It's English. A word like "then" is a building block of the English language and always means "then" when Shakespeare or any other English speaker uses it.
Is this a question? William Shakespeare did write his plays.