No one gives a country or a people the "right" to speak a specific language! (After all, nobody gave the English, Americans or Australians the "right" to speak English).
The area now known as France corresponds roughly to the Roman province of Gaul. The Romans introduced Latin as the language of government and commerce. After the Empire collapsed in the 5th century AD local dialects of Latin evolved into the so-called Romance languages we know today - French, Spanish, Italian, Romanian, and other less-widely spoken minor languages.
In effect, the French speak their language for the same reason you speak English - it came from the language of the people who colonized the area and established its culture.
There's no such thing as "having the right" to speak a certain language. The French were the ones who colonized Québec (Canada), and therefore imposed their native language. Later on, when the English conquered Canada and won over the French army, the Englishlanguage was introduced, but French was not banned.
It gave them the right to practice their customs.
Most of the Canadians now speak French.
The rights that India's Constitution gave were1-have the right to vote2-the right to speak freely3-the right to go where ever they choose4-the right to speak out5-the right to roam freely!
Speak french
check your textbook...
To speak is "parler" in French.
Speak ( in English) - parler( In French )
I would go with the fact that Quebec was a French colony for quite a long time--as was Louisiana--and the French language and culture transferred to the Quebecois. The rest of Canada was mostly colonized by the British, hence the fact that they mostly speak English.
french people speak french but they don't only have to speak french.
The English translation of "Do you speak French?" is "Parlez-vous français?" in French.
Yes, they speak French.