The issuer will call the bonds and issue new bonds to the maturity date.
It depends on whether the short call is covered or naked. If you have a short covered call (you own the stocks you wrote the call on), you wouldn't hedge it--if the call gets exercised you turn over the stocks you own and call it good. If you have a short naked call (you don't own the stock), hedge with a long call that has a strike price no more than the strike price of the short call. Maybe a few bucks less, if you can get it--if the counterparty to your short call exercises it, you exercise your long call, turn over the stock you received. Your profit will be the difference between the premiums on the calls, plus the difference between the strike prices.
The minimum value of a call option is zero. Why is that? Because options lose value with time until they expire on their pre-determined expiration date. Upon expiration, if the price of the underlying stock is less than the strike price of the call option, then the call seller gets to keep the premium received, whereas the call buyer has lost all the money paid for the option. For additional education there are many good websites to consult. One site of interest ishttp:/www.safe-options-trading-income.com.
False. A is greater than C. ******************** I'm not in calculus but if A isn't less than B, then that means its either greater than or equal to it. and if B isn't less than C then its greater or equal to. so that means that A is either greater than or equal to C. so that means that A than C.
Greater than 90 degrees but less than 180 degrees.
That is, 0
No......The price of the bonds will be less than par or 1,000.....
The yield on a 10-year bond would be less than that on a 1-year bill
Current yield is equal to the annual interest payment divided by the market price. It is the actual yield an investor will receive (instead of what is stated). For example, if a bond has a stated rate of 5 percent, but is selling below par, the investor would receive more than a 5 percent return. If the bond is selling above par, the current yield is actually less than 5 percent. Yield to maturity is the total return an investor will receive if the security is held until the maturity date, which is all of the annual interest payments and the difference between the original price and the principal you will receive at maturity. This formula is much more complicated but there are websites that will do it for you. Try moneychimp.com which has a calculator for the current yield and YTM.
If the yield curve is downward sloping, the yield to maturity on a 10-year Treasury coupon bond relative to that on a 1 year T-bond is the yield on the 10 year bond. It will be less than the yield on a 1-year bond.Ê
The actual yield is less than the theoretical yield.
When a bond sells at a discount, the yield is higher than the coupon rate. Your income is 1,100 x 8% = 88. You invested 970. 88/970 = 9.07% yield.
The yield curve is the relationship between an interest rate and the time to maturity for a given debt. Typical debts may be U.S. Treasury debt instruments (T-Bills, T-Notes, etc.) or the LIBOR lending rate. A yield curve is normally upward sloping, where short term lending would pay a lower rate (since it incurs less risk on the part of the borrower) compared to longer term lending (which places more risk on the borrower). In general the longer amount of time the lender loans money, the more that it earns as a result. However, yield curves -- adjusted daily -- can vary in their shape depending on current economic conditions, long term market outlook, etc. A yield curve describes the 'yield to maturity' of a collection of similar bonds (rating wise) with different periods to maturity. (src below)
This can't be answered without more information (ie coupon and term/maturity). However, the yield will exceed the coupon rate as the price is less than 100
The percent yield is the ratio of the actual yield to the theoretical yield. A mole ratio is a conversion factor derived from the coefficient of a balanced chemical equation interpreted in terms of moles.
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With bonds traded in the open market, it is the accepted rule that when price goes up, yield goes down. This is due to the fact that the terms of the bond do not change once it is issued. If a bond is issued with a 3% coupon, for example, that money is guaranteed for the person who is holding that bond to maturity. So if the price of the bond goes down, the yield will actually go up since you are actually paying less for that same amount of guaranteed money. Keep in mind that current yield is coupon/price. A high yield though is not always a good thing. These bonds that have a high yield as a result of being traded at a very low price are colloquially known as junk bonds, although the industry term for them is "high yield". High yield is obviously a good thing, but the implication is that those bonds carry a very high risk of non-payment. This could be because the issuer is not trustworthy in their ability to repay. Usually high yield bonds come from sources that have poor ratings from Moody's, S&P and Fitch or are not rated at all. Thus it all comes down to risk vs. reward. If one of these high yield bonds actually does pay out on maturity, the holder is a big winner. What is also likely is that the bond issuer defaults on the responsibility and the holder loses. In the case of a bankruptcy it is always the case that risk increases which will drive down price which, as discussed above, will push yield up.
yes