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A pulley can either change the direction or the force, but not both. Since a single fixed pulley makes an object go up when pulled down, it has changed direction. So it can't also change force.
Wiki User
∙ 10y ago
Wiki User
∙ 8y agoBeing fixed, it is unable to move. It provides no greater mechanical advantage.
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The simple machine that provides a mechanical advantage of one?
Single fixed pulley
What what type of pulley has the highest mechanical advantage and why?
The flagpole, because it has the united states of American flag and has 50 stars are on it GO USA.
What is maximum value of mechanical advantage?
Mechanical advantage is maximum when weight lifted is extremly high and for which C/W is extremely small so as to be negleted, Max. Mechanical Advantage=1/m
What is the advantage of a single fixed pulley?
a directional advantage
A machine that changes only the direction of a force has a mechanical advantage of?
1
What is the mechanical advantage of a fixed pulley?
' 1 ' is.
Why can't a pulley have a mechanical advantage greater than 1?
The mechanical advantage of a pulley can be greater than 1.The efficiency cannot but that is a different matter.
Which type of pulley has an ideal mechanical advantage of 1?
A single fixed pulley (:
The type of pully that does not have a mechanical advantage is?
The simple pulley is the type of pulley that does not have a mechanical advantage.
What is the mechanical advantage of the pulley system?
The mechanical advantage of the pulley system is the inertia and friction of the unbalanced and balanced forces acting on the mechanical advantage which is part of the pulley system....
What is the mechanical advantage of a stationary pulley?
Its 1 you need more than 1 to improve mechanical advantage i think it's 2 A single pulley means one axel, making the IMA = 1. A double pulley's IMA would = 2, and so on and so forth.
What is the mechanical advantage of systems of pulleys?
The mechanical advantage of the pulley system is the inertia and friction of the unbalanced and balanced forces acting on the mechanical advantage which is part of the pulley system....
Why does a fixed pulley have a mechanical advantage of one and a movable pulley has a mechanical advantage of two?
we find mechanical advantage of pulley by using principle of lever. according to this moment of effort is equal to moment of moment of load. As in this case effort arm is equal to load arm. so mechanical advantage is equal to one. but we know we can never finish friction between rope used and pulley so mechanical advantage is less than one
What is the mechanical advantage of a fixed and free pulley?
A fixed pulley does NOT multiply the effort force or have a mechanical advantage. It only changes the direction of the effort force. A free pulley multiplies the effort by two. this means the free pulley has a mechanical advantage of 2.information from:www.mhscience02.com
What is the mechanical advantage with a pulley?
Depending on how the pulley is mounted and how the rope is strung, the M.A. of a set-up with a single pulley is either ' 1 ' or ' 2 '.
How do you get the mechanical advantage of the pulley?
For a pulley, when is it that the mechanical advantage is greater than 1 and when is it that it is equal to 1? If a rope was hung over a pulley with unequal weights applied to both ends, the larger weight (77kg) would pull the lesser weight (30kg) upward, and so what would the mechanical advantage there be? The thing about this question is that if a rope were hung over a pulley and the tension at each point was the same (neglecting the mass of the rope and pulley), then how is it that if both ends of the rope point downward that the mechanical advantage becomes 2 (if there was just that one pulley)? Is the mechanical advantage any different if someone was applying a force to one end of the rope compared to gravity acting alone?
How do you get the mechanical advantage of a pulley?
For a pulley, when is it that the mechanical advantage is greater than 1 and when is it that it is equal to 1? If a rope was hung over a pulley with unequal weights applied to both ends, the larger weight (77kg) would pull the lesser weight (30kg) upward, and so what would the mechanical advantage there be? The thing about this question is that if a rope were hung over a pulley and the tension at each point was the same (neglecting the mass of the rope and pulley), then how is it that if both ends of the rope point downward that the mechanical advantage becomes 2 (if there was just that one pulley)? Is the mechanical advantage any different if someone was applying a force to one end of the rope compared to gravity acting alone?
