Want this question answered?
time
Yes, it does. Assuming a constant force, the impulse is equal to the force multiplied by the time the force acts. (If it isn't constant, you will of course use an integral instead.)
impulse
Einstiens law of relativity. That does not relate to impulse. Impulse equates to a change of momentum, usually thought of as for a very short time, but doesn't have really to be so short. Now since force = mass times acceleration =m.dv/dt, you can write that as d/dt of mv, so force =rate of change of momentum So force times time (or its integral over time, which is the same thing) must equal simply the change of momentum. In the case where it a very short time, all that happens is that the momentum changes instantaneously.
Two reasons. Recall impulse is the change in momentum. First the momentum is a vector. So imagine a triangle. One side is the initial momentum (with one direction), the second side is the final momentum (with a potentially different direction) and the third side is the impulse (or change in momentum). The other way to look at this is in terms of what causes the change in momentum. This is how impulse is generally described. The impulse can be defined as the average force acting on the particle multiplied by the time interval over which the force acts. This is sometimes represented as the integral of the force. As force is a vector so is the impulse caused by this force.
time
Strictly speaking, you would say that a force acts on a system and the impulse of that force corresponds to the change in momentum of the system due to the action of the force. More mathematically, the impulse of a force is defined as the integral of that force with respect to time over the time period that the force acts.
Impulse - APEX ! =)
An impulse is an instinctive motive or thought. In physics, impulse is the integral of an applied force, that which acts to change the motion of an object.
Yes, it does. Assuming a constant force, the impulse is equal to the force multiplied by the time the force acts. (If it isn't constant, you will of course use an integral instead.)
impulse
Impulse is change of momentum, which is force x time over which the force acts. Original momentum = mv, final momentum =0, so impulse is in this case mv.
Work is the force multiplied by the displacement (the distance that the force moves an object).
Einstiens law of relativity. That does not relate to impulse. Impulse equates to a change of momentum, usually thought of as for a very short time, but doesn't have really to be so short. Now since force = mass times acceleration =m.dv/dt, you can write that as d/dt of mv, so force =rate of change of momentum So force times time (or its integral over time, which is the same thing) must equal simply the change of momentum. In the case where it a very short time, all that happens is that the momentum changes instantaneously.
Impulse is defined as a force multiplied by the amount of time it acts over. In calculus terms, the impulse can be calculated as the integral of force with respect to time. Alternately, impulse can be calculated as the difference in momentum between two given instances. The SI units of impulse are N*s or kg*m/s.
It usually means a sudden urge to to something. In physics it means 'the product of force and the time for which it acts', or force times time.
Two reasons. Recall impulse is the change in momentum. First the momentum is a vector. So imagine a triangle. One side is the initial momentum (with one direction), the second side is the final momentum (with a potentially different direction) and the third side is the impulse (or change in momentum). The other way to look at this is in terms of what causes the change in momentum. This is how impulse is generally described. The impulse can be defined as the average force acting on the particle multiplied by the time interval over which the force acts. This is sometimes represented as the integral of the force. As force is a vector so is the impulse caused by this force.