No but if you replace a constant with a function it will remain a formula
It is a function/property that remains constant throughout a rotating machine,i.e in an adiabatic irreversible process relative to the rotating component.
If the increase in speed is uniform, this means that the slope of the function of speed over time is constant. This means that acceleration is constant.
Yes. Mass is constant for a given object. Weight is a function of mass and gravity, stronger gravity more weight.
Yes, by definition, Acceleration is the derivative of velocity. From Calculus, we know, the derivative of any constant function is simply 0. Therefore, any velocity time graph containing a constant velocity function will have an acceleration function = 0. c'=0 or c d/dx=0 also, there is a very simple, and nice progression to things in the field of Kinematics. where given a function, whether it be position, velocity, or acceleration, you can find the other through calculus. the progression for integration goes as follows, jolt (the feeling you get when acceleration changes), acceleration, velocity, position. And the reverse for derivatives. Having a velocity function of something like 55mph, think of it as driving on the freeway, absent of outside forces of friction, air resistance and hills, you never have to accelerate (positively, or negatively) to maintain speed, and the math backs that up. 55 is constant, and the derivative is 0. now if you had a velocity function such as 2x^2 + 5, also known as a parabolic function, you would take the derivative and get an acceleration of 4x, and a jolt of 4, and if you integrate to get position, you would have 2/3x^3+5x. Its all about the math.
No. Only a linear function has a constant rate of change.No. Only a linear function has a constant rate of change.No. Only a linear function has a constant rate of change.No. Only a linear function has a constant rate of change.
No but if you replace a constant with a function it will remain a formula
No but if you replace a constant with a function it will remain a formula
The PMT function.
No.
If the first derivative if a function is a constant that the original function has only one slope across its entire domain, so it is a line.
No.
zero
Neither, by definition.
It will just be the gradient of the function, which should be constant in a linear function.
When graphing functions, an inverse function will be symmetric to the original function about the line y = x. Since a constant function is simply a straight, horizontal line, its inverse would be a straight, vertical line. However, a vertical line is not a function. Therefore, constant functions do not have inverse functions. Another way of figuring this question can be achieved using the horizontal line test. Look at your original function on a graph. If any horizontal line intersects the graph of the original function more than once, the original function does not have an inverse. The constant function is a horizontal line. Under the assumptions of the horizontal line test, a horizontal line infinitely will cross the original function. Thus, the constant function does not have an inverse function.
The indefinite integral is the anti-derivative - so the question is, "What function has this given function as a derivative". And if you add a constant to a function, the derivative of the function doesn't change. Thus, for example, if the derivative is y' = 2x, the original function might be y = x squared. However, any function of the form y = x squared + c (for any constant c) also has the SAME derivative (2x in this case). Therefore, to completely specify all possible solutions, this constant should be added.