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Division by zero is undefined.
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∙ 7y ago
Wiki User
∙ 7y agoDivision by 0 is not defined.
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If n multiplied by 0 equals 0 than that must mean 0 divided by 0 equals n so 0 divided 0 is every number correct?
Answer: you can not divide 0 with its self or any other number. Answer: Since ANY number times 0 = 0, the inverse operation is not defined. It is know that that allowing a division by zero - even if it is 0 / 0 - leads to all kinds of errors. Answer: While your logic is well founded...under your logic 0 divided by 0 does indeed equal n but that does not mean that 0 divided by 0 equals every number...in fact n is an undefined variable that means absolutely nothing (even though you are trying to define it as every number) and math tells us that anything divided by zero (including 0 itself) does not exist or cannot be defined
What are the first 3 terms of n-2 divided by n squared?
5
Which number between 1 and 100 satisfies the following conditions . when divided by 3 or 5 the remainder is 1. when divided by 7 there is n remainder 0?
How about 91
0 divided by 7 what is the answer?
0
What is 2 to zero power?
1. All numbers to the zero power are 1. Take any number a^n we know that a^n/a^n=1 since anything divided by itself is 1. We also know the rule for division tells us a^n/a^n= a^(n-n)=a^0. so it is 1. 0^0 is usually defined as 1, but in some context people say it is indeterminate.
Can 0 be evenly divided by 4?
0
Why does n divided by 0 equals 0?
its not zero. Its Infinitive.
N C be D to 0?
nothing can be divided to 0
N C be D to O?
Nothing can be Divided to 0
If n multiplied by 0 equals 0 than that must mean 0 divided by 0 equals n so 0 divided 0 is every number correct?
Answer: you can not divide 0 with its self or any other number. Answer: Since ANY number times 0 = 0, the inverse operation is not defined. It is know that that allowing a division by zero - even if it is 0 / 0 - leads to all kinds of errors. Answer: While your logic is well founded...under your logic 0 divided by 0 does indeed equal n but that does not mean that 0 divided by 0 equals every number...in fact n is an undefined variable that means absolutely nothing (even though you are trying to define it as every number) and math tells us that anything divided by zero (including 0 itself) does not exist or cannot be defined
What property states that a number divided by itself is equal to 1?
Properties of Division: n/n =1, If n ≠ 0. Any number other than zero divided by itself is one.
What are the first 3 terms of n-2 divided by n squared?
5
K divided by 21 divided by N is equivalent to divided by?
K divided by 21 divided by N is equivalent to divided by?
What is 42 divided by n?
what is the answer for 42 divided by n?
Which number between 1 and 100 satisfies the following conditions . when divided by 3 or 5 the remainder is 1. when divided by 7 there is n remainder 0?
How about 91
What is power to zero?
1. All numbers to the zero power are 1. Take any number a^n we know that a^n/a^n=1 since anything divided by itself is 1. We also know the rule for division tells us a^n/a^n= a^(n-n)=a^0. so it is 1. 0^0 is usually defined as 1, but in some context people say it is indeterminate.
Why does any number to the zero power equal one?
Here is why any number to the zero power equals one. Consider this. a^b. it is natural to restrict a > 0, but we'll only assume that number b is any real number. We'll use the natural exponential function defined by the derivative of the exponential function. Now we have a^r=e^rln(a). And we know that e^rln(a)=e^((ln(a))^r), where a >0 and r is in the domain of all real numbers negative infinity to infinity. We can apply this definition to any number a to any power r. Particularly, a^0. By the provided definition, a^0=e^(0*ln(a))=e^0=1. Furthermore, a^1=e^(1*ln(a))=e(ln(a))=a. And a^2=(e^(ln(a))^2)=a^2. ---------------------------------- Here is a simpler approach: In general, a^n/a^m = a^(n-m) and a/a = 1. We can use these facts to prove that x^0 = 1 so long as x isn't 0. First, state the obvious: 1 = 1 Next, since any non-zero number divided by itself is one: 1 = a^n/a^n (It doesn't change how the equation looks, but for the sake of being thorough, you could subsitute (a^n/a^n) in place of 1 in the original equation.) Then, since dividing like bases requires that you subtract their exponents: a^n/a^n = a^(n-n) = a^0 Substitute (a^0) in for (a^n/a^n) and you obtain: a^0 = 1 There are two reasons "a" cannot be 0 in this proof: firstly, raising 0 to non-zero powers would still result in zero, so "a" being 0 would cause division by zero in the initial theorems we used, and secondly, 0^0 is considered undefined in itself.
