He popularized a number of new words.
Shakespeare influenced ("changed" is perhaps too extreme) the English language primarily by the introduction of numerous words and phrases.
He used nouns as verbs :) hope this helps(improved)
he added 2 nouns to make a new word ...apex... i checked it on my test -emily
He popularized a number of new words.
Shakespeare's words, phrases and the stories that he dramatized are deeply imbedded in our language and culture. Literature, theatre and film is full of constant references to Shakespeare's work in one way or another. If you cannot understand these, then you miss out on a great deal of culture in the English-speaking world.
Shakespeare's plays appeal to us because the language he used and the way he wrote was full of techniques and meaning. He used Greek mythology and the Elizabethan ages to set his stories.
What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.
Shakespeare's language was English. It is exactly the same language you asked your question in. Obviously, when Shakespeare meant to say "just" he said "just", as in Hamlet "Horatio, thou art e'en as just a man As e'er my conversation cop'd withal.", or in All's Well that Ends Well, "My mother told me just how he would woo."
Shakespeare was one of the most sought after playwrights of his time, regardless of how he started his career. In the end, it is reasonable to hypothesize that his method of writing, his subject matter, and indeed his life, was heavily influenced by the socio-political events of his time, as well as what was popular in the arena of theater.
Shakespeare's words, phrases and the stories that he dramatized are deeply imbedded in our language and culture. Literature, theatre and film is full of constant references to Shakespeare's work in one way or another. If you cannot understand these, then you miss out on a great deal of culture in the English-speaking world.
They like Shakespeare's poetry for the same reasons they like any poetry: it makes them think, it inspires passion, and it uses language in a beautiful way.
He did not intend to develop the language. He only intended to use it. However, his use of it did influence the way later generations used it.
"Don't" is a contraction of "do not", with the apostrophe representing the unpronounced letter o. In Shakespeare's day, this contraction wasn't much used (or as they would say, was not much used), although they did use some different ones. Shakespeare's language was modern English, by the way, the same one we are using now.
It approximates the way people speak in normal conversation
Yes, and no. Shakespeare uses many different styles of language, such as blank verse, rhyming couplets and ordinary "vernacular" language.
The full question is: What is true about the language that Shakespeare used to write Romeo and Juliet A It's blank verse B It was very popular among drama audiences in Shakespeare's time C It approximates the rhythm and sound of natural spoken language D All of these All of the above. It approximates the way people speak in normal conversation.
Shakespeare's plays appeal to us because the language he used and the way he wrote was full of techniques and meaning. He used Greek mythology and the Elizabethan ages to set his stories.
. What is one way that Henry's speech uses figurative language?-
Nobody knows enough about him to say one way or the other.
He is just about the most skillful user of the English language that ever was. He was able to put things in a succinct and memorable way that nobody has been able to match.
Yes they do but they speak in their language like we people do and we can't understand that what are they talking in their language and we can`t understand what are peole from diffrent people tlak like japense,Chinese and Korean are the same language but we can`t understand what that but the can understand no one changes this