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Shakespeare was one of the most sought after playwrights of his time, regardless of how he started his career. In the end, it is reasonable to hypothesize that his method of writing, his subject matter, and indeed his life, was heavily influenced by the socio-political events of his time, as well as what was popular in the arena of theater.

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9y ago
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13y ago

If you are asking why Shakespeare had his characters, or most of them, speak in elevated, rich or enhanced language, the reason is that he could have them convey their meaning more powerfully in this way. Shakespeare had his characters make frequent use of metaphor and simile and classical allusions, he employs an enormous vocabulary, far more than ordinary people use, and he had them speak in unrhymed iambic pentameter, also known as blank verse. This gave greater dignity and power to what the characters have to say.

This method of speaking is artificial now and it was artificial then. When Shakespeare has ordinary joes in his plays he has them speak in the ordinary language of his day which is much like ordinary speech nowadays.

Shakespeare's elevated language was and is effective--people still remember the way he wrote things hundreds of years after his death.

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13y ago

Shakespeare wrote all his plays for the same reason: to make money. Writing plays was his job.

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Q: Why did Shakespeare do it the way he did it?
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What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.


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Shakespeare's writing career spanned the years 1590 to 1613, give or take a year either way.


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Shakespeare used words in such a way that they were distanced from their traditional meaning, allowing him to: make hidden political statements.


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There is no way of answering this. Shakespeare left no records about what his favourite anything was. His personal life is a complete mystery.


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