distance = 1/2 acceleration x time squared; acceleration is 7 m/s/s
Calculate the acceleration of a body which start from rest and travel 87.5m 5sec
It is 7 m/s2.
when the body travels in unequal velocity in equal intervals of time.
Since the derivative of velocity is acceleration, the answer would be technically 'no'. Here is why: v = 0 v' = 0 = a Or in variable form... v(x) = x v(0) = 0 v'(0) = 0 = a You can "trick" the derivative into saying that v'(x) = 1 = a (since the derivative of x = 1) and then stating v'(0) = 1 = a... but that is not entirely correct. Acceleration is a change over time and is measured at more then one point (i.e. the acceleration of this body of matter is y from time 1 to 5) unless using derivatives to form the equation of the acceleration line/curve. If an object has a constant acceleration of 1, then the velocity is constantly increasing over that time. Using the equation discussed above and looking at acceleration over time, at 0 seconds, acceleration is 0 and so is velocity, but from 0-1 seconds acceleration is 1 and velocity is 1 as well. 0-2 seconds, acceleration is 1, but velocity would be 2 (at the end of 2 seconds).
d = 1/2 a t2 where d is distance traveled a is the constant acceleration t is the time You can calculate the value of "a" by dividing "v" by "t".
Mass measures the body's resistance to acceleration.
The acceleration is zero for a body having constant velocity.
acceleration of a falling body is 9.8m/s*s and its direction is vertically downward.
when the body travels in unequal velocity in equal intervals of time.
heres the average 2.2 seconds
The acceleration of the body is 3 m/sΒ²
Yes: it starts at the heart and goes to the lungs and travels throughout the body and back to the heart.
Seconds times seconds -- for example, the acceleration of a falling body in the earth's gravitational field is equal to 9.8 metres per second squared, so if a body has been falling for 5 seconds, the equation reads 9.8M x 5 x 5
The circulatory system is the way your blood travels throughout your body. It starts at the heart, then is pumped to the organs that need it.
Since the derivative of velocity is acceleration, the answer would be technically 'no'. Here is why: v = 0 v' = 0 = a Or in variable form... v(x) = x v(0) = 0 v'(0) = 0 = a You can "trick" the derivative into saying that v'(x) = 1 = a (since the derivative of x = 1) and then stating v'(0) = 1 = a... but that is not entirely correct. Acceleration is a change over time and is measured at more then one point (i.e. the acceleration of this body of matter is y from time 1 to 5) unless using derivatives to form the equation of the acceleration line/curve. If an object has a constant acceleration of 1, then the velocity is constantly increasing over that time. Using the equation discussed above and looking at acceleration over time, at 0 seconds, acceleration is 0 and so is velocity, but from 0-1 seconds acceleration is 1 and velocity is 1 as well. 0-2 seconds, acceleration is 1, but velocity would be 2 (at the end of 2 seconds).
No.Any body traveling at a steady speed is experiencing velocity without experiencing acceleration. So a for particle traveling steadily at 3m/s, velocity equals 3 m/s, but as long as it travels steadily at this rate, acceleration is 0.
d = 1/2 a t2 where d is distance traveled a is the constant acceleration t is the time You can calculate the value of "a" by dividing "v" by "t".
Yes. If a body has a constant velocity there is no acceleration, but if the velocity is changing there is acceleration present.
force acting on unit mass of body is the acceleration of that body.