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Grice's maxims came first. Leech expanded his maxims further. Grice's maxims were principles by which we can make a conversation work: say the right thing (Quality) don't say too much, or too little (Quantity), say it at the relevant time (Relevance) and in the way that's understandable (Manner), and these maxims are under the umbrella of the 'Cooperative Principle' which is a principle combining these four elements of what, how much and in what way you say things, in order to have a conversation. Leech brought in a 'Politeness Principle' which defined politeness as forms of behaviour which allow us to co-exist in a harmonious manner. Therefore, his maxims are those of Tact, Generosity, Approbation, Modesty, Agreement and Sympathy. Conversation governed by these maxims are more polite and thus encourage harmonious co-existence. To summarise: Grice talked about efficient and clear conversation, Leech was concerned with this, but also how the delivery of this conversation and how polite it is. That is an incredibly over-simplified explanation but it might help in some small way.

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Q: What is the difference between leech's maxims and grice's maxims?
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When was Three Maxims created?

Three Maxims was created in 1936.


What is the difference between violating maxim and flouting maxim?

violating a maxim is of three types : 1. violating a maxim ; one instance in which speakers might violate a maxim is to deceive the hearer , this might also be a violation of the cooperative principle. 2. signaling violation ( minor violation ) ; speakers would essentially come out and tell you they are violating a maxim and why , for example : I don't know if this is relevant , but .... ( relevance ) I can't tell you , I sworn to secrecy ... ( quantity ) violation 3. maxim clash ; speakers violate one maxim in order to preserve one , there is clash between both the maxims of quantity and quality. A: where does Mary live ? B: Nevada B's answer is not informative as required , so it breaks the maxim of quantity Assuming that B does not know exactly where does Mary live , he did not give information for which he has no evidence or uncertain , in this way he preserved the maxim of quality . Finally , as for floating is called ( Major Violation ) ; means that a speaker clearly and intentionally violates a maxim to create a Complicature . for example : A: Where is Susan B: In the science lab or library B's answer violates the maxim of quantity , the implication that there are two options : either Susan is in the library or in the science lab . And B gave such an answer because he didn't know exactly where were Susan . Ashraf Ibrahim Al- Quds Open University - Palestine - Jenin Branch


Is there a relationship between 'politeness maxims' and 'compliment responses'?

In my response, "politeness maxim" is taken to mean "a very common phrase that people say to each other with the aim of not communicating new knowledge but to be friendly, nice, etc." e.g. When a co-worker tells you that a relative died, it is common for people to say "I'm sorry to hear that" which is a politeness maxim. "compliment response" is taken to mean "a very common phrase that people say after another person has praised them for ability, possession, appearance, or anything that is valuable for social or economic reasons." E.g. When a person says you look so pretty, people may say "you don't have to say that" or, "no I don't, you're just being nice." These are examples of compliment responses. Incidentally, I believe that the best response to a compliment is to say "thank you." Given these two definitions, then yes, there is a relationship between "politeness maxim" and "compliment response." They are both common linguistic formulae rooted in culture with the aim of facilitating social relationships.


Appreaciation of Bertolt Brecht'poem - A Worker Reads history?

very satirical approach has been taken by Bertolt Brecht as he was a great maxims, the teach us how foolish to write the names of great king s' name instead of poor hard labours who sacrificed their each and every life in building the history of the world. there are many kindoms which were flourished in ancient time not by their effort they just dd was giving out orders to carry out their plans. but poor innocent labour who built the world flourishing kindom such as babylon in his intiation of the poem interragte whose forces that built the the giant gate of thebe s which are man made but unimaginable miraculous how did they craft them. his rhetorical style make us think really how these master pieces emerged in the world? when the invasion hit upon the kidom of babylon in each time it was destroyed beyond the repair anyhow they were re built is it the kings who gave their entire manpower to rebuild them?


Can you drink at midnight the day before your 21st birthday?

You should be able to drink at midnight on the day before you are 21 because by law you are 21 on the day before your 21st birthday. The only exception would be if the state has a statute that specifically states that you are not allowed to drink until your "21st birthday" as opposed to being "21 years of age." There are two legal maxims at work here. One is "A day begun is a day done." The other, very similar, is "The law does not recognize a part of a day." If a person is born on January 1 he is in existence for the whole day even if he was born at 11:59:59 p.m. Then as soon as soon December 31 begins, at midnight between the 30th and 31st, he has been in existence for 365 days. One year. So he is one year old on the day before his birthday. A person does not need to be in existence for 365 24 hour periods to be a year old, otherwise we would all have our time of birth as well as out date of birth on our licenses. That's the point about the law not recognizing parts of a day. There are cases in most states to this effect: Nelson v. Sandkamp, 227 Minnesota Reporter 177; Commonwealth v. Howe, 35 Pennsylvania Superior Court 554; Lenhart v. State, 33 Texas Criminal Reporter 504; State in interest of F. W., 130 NJ Superior Court Reports 512. These are not drinking age cases but the principle still applies. The Federal view as to turning of age is the same. See Turnbull v. Bonkowski, 419 F. 2d 104. This is how the court explained it: "Since one is in existence on the day of his birth, he is, in fact, on the first anniversary of his birth, of the age of one year plus a day or some part of a day. The appellant did, then, reach the age of nineteen years on the day before the nineteenth anniversary of his birth,. . . ' At common law the rule was the same. This is what that legal scholar Blackstone said "Full age in male or female is 21 years, which is completed on the day preceding the 21st anniversary of a person's birth." 1 Blackstone's Commentary 457. This is how lawyers and judges have viewed the issue, but you might not be able to convince a bartender of the accuracy of this answer. I hesitate to advise printing this answer and giving it to a bartender (even with all the WikiAnswers adornments). The bartender might just think you've already been drinking and escort you to the door. So you can have a drink at midnight on the day before your 21st birthday, but if you do, drink responsibly. And don't drive afterward.

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