0
What is the inverse of the function f of x equals x to the power of one over x?
NatePitch
The inverse is not a function because it fails the vertical line test.
Wiki User
∙ 12y ago
Add your answer:
Earn +20 pts
What is the inverse function for 4 over x?
1. its -4 over x
What is the inverse sine function?
The inverse sine is the cosecant, otherwise known as "hypotenuse over opposite" or arcsine. The cosecant is often confused as being the inverse of the cosine, which, in reality, is the secant, otherwise known as "hypotenuse over adjacent" or arccosine.
When is the inverse of a itself a function?
Since the inverse of a function is it's reflection over the line x=y, which has a slope of 1. The only way a function can be It'a own inverse is if it is a liner function whose slope is perpendicular to the line. Since a perpendicular line is any line with the negative recoprocal of the slope, any linear function whose slope is -1 will be it's own inverse. - stefanie math 7-12 teacher
What kind of symmetry indicates that a function will not have an inverse?
If a function is even ie if f(-x) = f(x). Such a function would be symmetric about the y-axis. So f(x) is a many-to-one function. The inverse mapping then is one-to-many which is not a function. In fact, the function need not be symmetric about the y-axis. Symmetry about x=k (for any constant k) would also do. Also, leaving aside the question of symmetry, the existence of an inverse depends on the domain over which the original function is defined. Thus, y = f(x) = x2 does not have an inverse if f is defined from the real numbers (R) to R. But if it is defined from (and to) the non-negative Reals there is an inverse - the square-root function.
What does 1 over 9 to the second power equals?
It then equals 1/81
Why is the graph of an inverse of a function flipped over the line y equals x instead of another line?
Because the inverse of a function is what happens when you replace x with y and y with x.
What is the inverse function of y equals -x-5?
This was on my test yesterday . . .it's really easy, just put a one over the -x-5.
What is the inverse function for 4 over x?
1. its -4 over x
If a over b equals 3 over 4 then 4 over 3 equals what?
answer: b over a for ur question: if, a/b = 3/4 then, 4/3 = ? when u switch the place holders like that, it is called the 'inverse'. and since 4/3 is the inverse of 3/4, then the inverse of a/b is b/a.
What is the difference between a reciprocal function and an inverse function?
A reciprocal function will flip the original function (reciprocal of 3/5 is 5/3). An inverse function will change the x's and y's of the original function (the inverse of x<4,y>8 is y<4, x>8). Whenever a function is reflected over the line y=x, the result is the inverse of that function. The y=x line starts at the origin (0,0) and has a positive slope of one. All an inverse does is flip the domain and range.
Why is the graph of an inverse of a function flipped over the line y x instead of another line?
Because the inverse of a function is what happens when you replace x with y and y with x.
What is the inverse sine function?
The inverse sine is the cosecant, otherwise known as "hypotenuse over opposite" or arcsine. The cosecant is often confused as being the inverse of the cosine, which, in reality, is the secant, otherwise known as "hypotenuse over adjacent" or arccosine.
When is the inverse of a itself a function?
Since the inverse of a function is it's reflection over the line x=y, which has a slope of 1. The only way a function can be It'a own inverse is if it is a liner function whose slope is perpendicular to the line. Since a perpendicular line is any line with the negative recoprocal of the slope, any linear function whose slope is -1 will be it's own inverse. - stefanie math 7-12 teacher
What kind of symmetry indicates that a function will not have an inverse?
If a function is even ie if f(-x) = f(x). Such a function would be symmetric about the y-axis. So f(x) is a many-to-one function. The inverse mapping then is one-to-many which is not a function. In fact, the function need not be symmetric about the y-axis. Symmetry about x=k (for any constant k) would also do. Also, leaving aside the question of symmetry, the existence of an inverse depends on the domain over which the original function is defined. Thus, y = f(x) = x2 does not have an inverse if f is defined from the real numbers (R) to R. But if it is defined from (and to) the non-negative Reals there is an inverse - the square-root function.
Which functions do not have an inverse?
y = x2 where the domain is the set of real numbers does not have an inverse, because the square root function is a one-two-two mapping (except at 0). Any polynomial with more than one root, over the reals, has no inverse. y = 1/x has no inverse across 0. But it is possible to define the domain so that each of these functions has an inverse. For example y = x2 where x is non-negative has the square root function as its inverse.
What is the inverse of y equals 4x - 2?
y=x+2/4 (x+2 is all over four)
What is the inverse of eight over five?
the inverse is 5 over eight
