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This would depend on whether the allele for dimples is dominant or recessive.

If the allele for dimples is dominant and the no dimples allele is recessive then the phenotype of the individual would be dimpled. If the allele for no dimples is dominant and the allele for no dimples is recessive then the dimples will not be expressed. If these alleles are codominant then the dimples will be expressed but not as much as in an individual who has both alleles for dimples.

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Armand Stiedemann

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Q: What is the phenotype of an individual with one allele for dimple and one allele for no dimples?
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Does Robert Pattinson have dimples?

rob has one dimple on his cheek and back dimples... Kristen have back dimples too


Dimples are a dominant characteristic If one parent does not have dimples and one parent is heterozygous for dimples what chance does a child have for getting dimples?

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