What justifies a person before God in James 2 verses 14-26?

Answer 1

This discussion of faith and deeds is one of the most confusing teachings in The Bible - IMHO. To properly understand this, especially when comparing this passage to those of Paul's, we must begin by understanding some basics.

Firstly, none of the writers in the New Testament differ on this statement: through God's grace, salvation is given to mankind by faith in Jesus. So, what exactly is James referring to? It is that the 'new person' who has repented and has been baptized, attempting to follow the ways of Jesus, must allow the 'fruits of the Spirit' given to each via God's Holy Spirit (see Galatians 5:22-25) to let us do God's good works (see Ephesians 2:10; 4:12; Philippians 2:13; Colossians 1:29). Again, as we can now see, the new 'Chrisitan' is the vehicle God uses to complete His works. In no way then is James saying we are saved by faith apart from the 'works of the Law' as we are no longer under the burden of the Law (which no person alone can fully keep) due to Christ and the Father living in us (see John 14:20, etas) - helping us grow and do their work until we are changed into the first fruits of the God Family.

In short, as Christians, we become 'disciples' of Christ. The term 'disciple' means to imitate. So we are to imitate our Perfect example in life - Jesus Christ. He fully kept the Law, indeed, He expanded it to the its fullest meaning - the letter and the spirit of it. He performed all the Father's good works even unto His own painful death for the sins of this world (not His will but the Father's). James is simply stating that with the fruits of God's Holy Spirit within us, we are lead to perform all His good works. To not express this 'Love' of all, would not make us His.