To make his wife happy. Basically, he was all set to forget the murder plan when she came along (in Act 1 Scene 7) and told him and showed him that she would hold him in contempt and believe that he was not manly if he didn't go through with the murder plan. So, in order to please her, he allowed himself to get talked into it.
Yes. Macbeth and Lady Macbeth were King and Queen of Scotland. They did kill their predecessor, Duncan, who was a bad king, and reigned for 17 years, very successfully, until Macbeth was killed. Lady Macbeth's son, Lulach, took the throne after Macbeth's death.
In Act 2 Scene 3 Lines 108-112, Macbeth gave the excuse of killing the guards/grooms as the murderers of his king. But the real reason was otherwise. He killed them, so as to have no witnesses and to keep them from being interrogated as suspects.
MacBeth was King of Scotland from 1040-1057 and was nothing like the Shakespeare MacBeth.
Real Macbeth: Wise, strong leader, lead successfully for 17 years. He did kill Duncan but he was a bad king and was running his people into the ground. Play Macbeth: Started as a good soldier, ended a crazy killer who killed his best friend and the king. He didn't even care when his wife committed suicide.
In shakesperes story it is said that Macbeth killed him in his sleep but in reality historians believe he was killed (by Macbeth) during or shortly after the battle.
She was the wife of the real king Macbeth.
Basically, Macbeth wants all the power, and to get that power he kills king Duncan. Then when Macbeth is announced king all of a sudden Banquo ( Macbeth's best friend) suspects him. So when Macbeth finds out that Banquo is suspecting him, he gets his men to kill, Banquo. Soon after Macbeth starts feeling guilty and sees the ghost of the people he killed. Then lady Macbeth, started to feel guilty and she committed suicide. Towards the end Macduff's family are killed, by of course Macbeth. So Macduff kills Macbeth and Malcolm ( one of the sons of Duncan) becomes king.
I assume you meant "Why did Shakespeare make Macbeth a villan?" Well, what could the storyline have been if he wasn't a villan? Shakespeare's Macbeth was based on the real Macbeth. He murdered his king, Duncan, and became king. I guess that means that the real Macbeth was a villan, and so Shakespeare only kept it that way, showing it wasn't Shakespeare that made his character of Macbeth a villan.
At the outset of Macbeth, Duncan is the King of Scotland. Shortly after Macbeth commits regicide, he becomes the King. At the very end of the play, Malcolm (Duncan's son) is taken to be crowned.Unless you meant in terms of real history, in which case, James I was on the throne when Shakespeare wrote Macbeth.
People hated Macbeth because he killed the king Duncan (the king of Scotland) so that he could become the king as the witches prophecy had mentioned and then Duncan's grooms and Banquo and who knows how many more. Even if they did not suspect him of all those crimes (and we know from Lennox's speech in Act 3 Scene 6 that at least some of them did), they could not help feel the oppressive atmosphere caused by Macbeth's paranoia. He keeps a "servant fee'd" in every house to spy on people and turn them in if they grumble about Macbeth. All in all it was like living under Stalin.
Macbeth was very real. He was king of Scotland for 17 years from 1040 to 1057. The original King Macbeth's name was actual Mac Bethad meaning Son of Bethad. There are all kinds of people with the surname Macbeth living now. Google "Ryan Macbeth" if you don't believe me. It's a real name.
The real Macbeth was King of Scotland between 1040 and 1057, a period of 17 years. There is no record of his birth but there is record of his behaving like an adult in 1031, which suggests that he was at least 30 at the time he became king, and may have been older.