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Probably WWII was more of an economic war than WWI. Japan, for example, went to war almost entirely because the USA, Britain and the Netherlands had frozen the Japanese foreign assets (bank accounts). This meant Japan was unable to buy anything overseas, the most critical need being oil. Germany, led by Hitler in WWII, had only marginal interest in the goals set forth by the Kaiser in WWI, that being an increase in African colonies. These colonies were sought as much as anything for their prestige. Hitler's goal was to expand Germany east so that they would grow stronger economically at the expense of the Slavic peoples. Germany and Japan both had over stimulated (inflation) economies in WWII. Both were on a path economically that led to either war or reduction in military spending. In WWI Germany was very strong economically leading into the war and inflation was not an issue. In both wars money was important but in WWII, Britain did not have the financial resources to fight the war more than a year or so. As such America had to lend vast sums to Britain to keep them in the war. Had the USA not intervened in 1940, Britain would have had to sue for peace by 1941 and the war in Western Europe would have been over. In both wars the USA got involved partially because America wanted more free trade in the world. America's desire was crushed by the English and French in WWI (this probably contributing more than any other single factor to the Great Depression). In WWII, with the French conquered and Britain on American financial life support, they were in no position to hobble the USA. After WWII, the USA began promoting free trade throughout the world, a process that continues to this day. This is the primary reason why the world has had no more depressions, with economic expansion worldwide on a greater scale than at any time in world history.

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โˆ™ 2006-04-26 12:51:30
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Q: What were the economic differences between World War 1 and World War 2?
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