When Mary became pregnant JOSEPH intended to take action allowed by what Jewish law?

Answer 1

Joseph was going to break the engagement - in Jewish law, engagement was as binding as a marriage - and he was intending to do this privately rather than making a public spectacle of Mary. An angel intervened and this action was never taken.
Joseph wanted to break the engagement quietly.
When Mary became pregnant Joseph then wanted to quietly divorce her as it was allowed by Jewish law.

Joseph had the right to divorce Mary under Jewish Law, since she became pregnant prior to their marriage.

Joseph was going to divorce Mary. Think about it... In those time you couldn't

have sex with your wife until a year has passed and suddenly Mary becomes

pregnant saying it is the Holy Spirit who has conceived her. Many people would

believe that she was lying and she had cheated on Joseph but that was not

true. Joseph did not leave her for the angel came to him in the dream and told

him everything and u know what happens after that.

===================================

I'm not at all knowledgeable in this department, so I don't want to appear as if

I intend to get involved, but will somebody please explain to me that business

about "In those time you couldn't have sex with your wife until a year has passed" ?

Where in the world does that come from ? Certainly not from any Jewish world,

which I understand was the environment of the subject under discussion.

I was told all of this but it seems that it was actually Mary got pregnant before she was married which is fornication and he was going to well... 'divorce' her...

i checked all of this okay.

========================

That's different.

Thank you.