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When the output is less than the input. Mechanical advantage is expressed as the ratio of the output to the input.

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Q: When is mechanical advantage less than 1?
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Can a inclined plane have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?

The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is equal to length divided by height (l/h). Therefore, if the length is less than than the height, the mechanical advantage would be less than one.


What increases when you have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?

2


When is it useful for some tasks to have a mechanical advantage less than 1?

The mechanical advantage is less than 1 when the output is less than the input. Mechanical advantage is expressed as the ratio of the output to the input. You can move an object far faster than your source of power is capable of working. Such as in the final gears in your car, where the wheels are turning faster than the engine is.


Can a machine be useful even if its mechanical advantage is less than 1?

yes


Mechanical advantage of a 3rd class lever?

always less than 1


The mechanical advantage of a second class lever?

... is always less than 1 .


What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage?

Every lever has a mechanical advantage. It may be less than ' 1 ' ... the outputforce may be less than the input force ... but it can always be calculated.The 'ideal' mechanical advantage ... that is, in the absence of losses ... isClass I lever . . . . . any number, depending on dimensions of the structureClass II lever. . . . . more than 1Class III lever.. . . . less than 1


Is an oar a first class lever?

Yes, but its Mechanical advantage is usually less than 1


Why would you want to use a machine with a mechanical advantage less than 1?

Mainly because that's the only kind you can ever get. If you hold out until you find a machine with a mechanical advantage of not less than 1, you'll never get the job done. Or even started.


Is it possible for a first or second class lever to have a mechanical advantage less than one or for a third class lever to have a mechanical advantage greater than one?

Second class lever. . . . Always greater than 1 . Third class lever . . . . . Always less than 1 . First class lever . . . . . Can be greater than 1 or less than 1 depending on position of fulcrum.


Why can't a pulley have a mechanical advantage greater than 1?

The mechanical advantage of a pulley can be greater than 1.The efficiency cannot but that is a different matter.


If the output force is less than the input force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage is less than one.?

True ~ LiL' Diablo