Uh....no. Not to be rude but british monarchy sort of gives it away, and the protest called "No taxation without representation", stating that they dont have any representation in Parliament but they still got taxed.
Athenian
No,they have monarchy government,which is ruled by a queen or a king and stays within one royal family.If the had a democracy,which is ruled by the people,they could vote. The United Kingdom which includes England does have the right to vote in Government Elections. It has nothing to do with the Queen and Monarchy.
In the republican period of Rome, a consortium of wealthy families ruled. Theoretically the counsuls were elected, but the voting blocks could be "persuaded" to vote a certain way.
Through a fan vote.
Through a fan vote.
Men were able to vote in the 1920s as long as they were older than 21. Women could vote if they were over 30, a law passed by the British Parliamant, the law was changed that women could vote at the age of 21 in 1928. African Americans could not vote until The Voting Rights Act of 1965.
okay 1. THEY WERE NOT FAIR. Votes were bribed 2. WOMEN COULD NOT VOTE YOU COULD ONLY VOTE IF YOU WERE A MALE CITZEN. 3. GOVERMENT OFFICIALS WERE NOT PAID WHICH IS WHY MOST PEOPLE WHO RULED WERE ALREADY WEALTHY
From a fan vote in 1959-60.
Free adult males who were members of wealthy and powerful families could vote for the President or Prime Minister.
A fan vote was undertaken when the club was founded in 1959 and votes favored the name Patriots. They were the Boston Patriots until moving from Boston to Foxboro in 1971.
If you mean the Roman Republic, it was nominally ruled by the people, but one man did not have one vote. The Roman voting was done by blocks and one block had one vote.
Only the men that were rich could vote, women could not vote.