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Which French King convened the Estates General because of bankruptcy?
Wiki User
∙ 14y ago
This was King Louis XVI.
Wiki User
∙ 14y ago
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Why didn't Louis XIV call a meeting of the Estates-general?
By calling the Estates-General Louis the XIV would be at a disadvantage because it would give more power to the 1st Estate and the 2nd Estate. He would be losing power and he had no reason to call on the Estates-General. Louis the XVIII had to call on the Estates-General because the country was about to go bankrupt and he had no other choice but to call on the Estates-General and ask them for a loan.
How did Estates-General become the national assembly of France?
because GOD SAID SO
Why did Philip II call the Estates-General together?
He wanted to find a way to solve the financial crisis issue
Why did Pillip ii call the Estates-General together?
Because he wanted to solve the financial crisis
How did the Estates-General Differ from parliament?
The estates general had 3 estates, commoners, clergy, and nobility. Parliament had 2, commoners and nobility. More important, the estates general had given the king the ability to levy taxes. Parliament never gave the king that authority. As a result the British Parliament met constantly because the king always needed money. The estates general stopped meeting after it gave the king the power to levy taxes. When things became a total mess and the laws needed to be changed, then King Louis xvi had to call a meeting of the Estates General. At that point things got out of hand and the French Revolution started.
Why was the monticello convention convened?
because
How was the membership of the National Assembly different from that of the Estates General?
The Estates General had existed for centuries, while the National Assembly was formed in 1789. - Apex
Can you get a pistol permit if you have filed for bankruptcy?
Bankruptcy is not a criminal thing. It is a legal and fincnial action that should not effect any other right you otherwise have.
Why would the king Louis xvi support the old system of voting in the estates general?
Because he could. He was king and he could do whatever he wanted to.
What was the tenis court oath?
When Louis XVI had to convoke the Estates General, the third estate (the bourgeoisie) ordered to double their numbers in the Estates General, because the majority of France existed of Bourgeoisie. The others 2 estates (the nobility and the clergy) did not agree with this, but the King gave in to the third estate. When the Estates General met, they had on one occasion locked out the third estates members. The third estate members went to a nearby tennis court at Versailles and swore they would not dissemble until a constitution for France would be drawn up and accepted. Together with the storming of the Bastille (3 weeks later) this was significant for the beginning of the French Revolution.
Why hadn't the estates general been used in 150 years prior to this time?
The Estates General hadn't been used for 150 years because the king was afraid it would afford the nobles too much power. The First Estate consisted of members of the clergy and the Second Estate consisted of nobility.
Why was the meeting of the estate general called?
Louis XVI called a meeting of the Estates General in 1789 because he needed more revenue. BTW, the French aristocracy was exempt from taxation. Does this sound familiar?
