Christopher Marlowe (1564-1593), and Thomas Kyd (1558-1594) and Robert Greene (1558-1592) were the most famous playwrights who worked exclusively in the reign of Elizabeth. Other famous playwrights began their careers in Elizabeth's reign but concluded in that of James I including Ben Jonson (1572-1637), and Thomas Dekker (1572-1632).
Because that's when he was alive. If you mean why all his plays (except Marry Wives) are set in different times or different places, it's because he couldn't talk about things that where wrong in England at the time.
It can be said that he was writting in the Queen Elizabeth's era or also known as "The Golden Age".This period, and some years before and after are also known as The Renaissanseor it is the Elizabethan eraThe era in which Shakespeare lived is sometimes called the Elizabethan Era.
Except to the extent that Shakespeare knew that he couldn't write anything which might criticize the monarch, since people who wrote those kinds of things went to jail, the king and queen had no influence on Shakespeare's writing.
No. He does not seem to have left England in his life and spent almost all of his time in London or Stratford, except when his company was touring rural England.
Protestant. Henry VIII had severed the English church from the control of Rome some thirty years before Shakespeare was born, and except for the short reign of Mary I it remained so.
In 1290 Edward I expelled all Jews from England, and they were not readmitted to the country till 1657 (except as members of the households of foreign diplomats). So, in the reign of Elizabeth I, there were practically no Jews in England. However, all the usual stereotypes were there.
Fine, thank you. Except Shakespeare's son Hamnet they all outlived him.
There isn't one. Since all of Shakespeare's plays are constantly performed in their original language, all of the words he uses are currently being used, even if only for the limited purpose of performing his plays. The issue is complicated by the fact that some of the words Shakespeare used were words he made up himself, and did not catch on. One of my favourites is "superflux" which is used in the play King Lear and means "the excess". Shakespeare just made that up, but nobody uses it except people who are playing or quoting King Lear.
It was unlawful for women to appear on stage in Shakespeare's day. (People couldn't imagine women getting on stage except for some kind of striptease) The women's parts in all plays performed before 1660 in England, whether by Shakespeare or by one of the many other paywrights of the day, were played by boys.
He was also an actor and businessmen.
Shakespeare is the most studied author in the English language, and so naturally there are many issues for debate about the plays. Some scholars suggest that Shakespeare was a closet homosexual and this affected his writing. Others suggest that he was a closet Catholic and that this affected the writing of the plays. Other debates have centred around the writing of the plays--whether the ones identified as being by Shakespeare may have been co-written with other authors, or whether plays not identified as Shakespeare's in any contemporary published source may have been his work. Then there are the issues surrounding the sonnets: who is "Mr. W.H.", and who are the sonnets written to (the so-called "fair youth" and "dark lady")? One issue that is not the subject for academic debate is whether William Shakespeare the playwright was the same person as William Shakespeare of Stratford. All of the evidence supports this. Only conspiracy theorists who claim that there would be contrary evidence except that it has been cunningly destroyed or encoded think that this is an issue.
Everyone is from England except Niall, who is from Ireland.