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Macduff's
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∙ 13y ago
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Why wold macduf have a particular reason to kill Macbeth?
Macbeth ordered the bloody murder of Macduff's wife and children. That would be grounds for revenge in any action movie.
Why does macduff blame himself for the death of his wife and children?
Because he was the one who left them in the first place. He didn't leave Scotland with the intention of ditching them, he just fled Scotland to escape the imminent wrath of Macbeth (and to persuade Malcolm to overthrow Macbeth); not realizing Macbeth would kill his wife and children too.
How does Macbeth kill macduff's wife?
He sends murderers to do it.
What is the plan for the killing of MacBeth?
Basically, a huge army is going to attack his castle. MacDuff hopes to be the guy who will fight with Macbeth so he can kill him and get revenge for his wife and children. It's not really a plan.
How did Macbeth easily kill the king?
His wife drugged the bodyguards.
What drives Macbeth to kill the king and keep on killing?
his wife.
Who possesses the tragic flaw of ambition in Macbeth?
Mainly Macbeth, but I suppose his power-hungry wife as well.
What king did Macbeth kill in the beginning of Macbeth?
Macbeth killed King Duncan after hearing the witches' prophecies and being urged on by his wife, Lady Macbeth
How does macduff change?
He starts out trying to avoid Macbeth, hoping that if he is out of sight he will be out of mind. But when this leads to the death of his wife and children anyway, he changes his approach and wants to lead the assault and kill Macbeth himself. In other words, Macbeth changes him from a non-supporter to an active enemy.
Why does Macduff not go to Macbeth's crowning?
If you are referring to Shakespeare's classic Macbeth, it's because Macduff hates Macbeth. Remember, Macbeth turns evil because of hunger for power. Macbeth killed Macduff's wife and children because Macduff knew Macbeth killed Duncan. He wanted to kill Macduff, but Macduff was gone. Macbeth killed Macduff's family because he felt they were in his way and stopping him from achieving his goals.
Why does Macbeth tell his wife she should only have male children?
Macbeth tells his wife this because he fears the witches' prophecy that Banquo's descendants will inherit the throne, and having only male children ensures that his lineage will not be overthrown. This reflects Macbeth's ambition and paranoia about holding onto power.
Did Hitlar kill his children?
No his wife poisoned them
