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Why did Britain and France give in to Hitler's demand at Munich in 1938?
Wiki User
∙ 15y ago
They did not ultimately give into Hitler's demands they came to an agreement with him that would meet them.
Wiki User
∙ 15y ago
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At the munich conference did france and Britain demand germany to withdraw troops?
I'm not sure, they wanted Germany to restrict it's territorial demands. Chamberlain returned to Britain hailing 'Peace in our time'. On a scale of 1 to 10 in being wrong it scores 11.
What demand of Germany did Britain and France make?
Unconditional Surrender
By giving in to Hitler's demand Britain and France had established a policy of what?
I am not sure if this is what you are looking for but the way Britain and France gave in to Hitler's demands was called Appeasement.
What added to the panic of 1819?
The end of the war between Britain and France.
What did Hitler declared at the Munich Conference?
Britain and France gave in to Hitler's demands for the Sudetenland. Czechoslovakia was not present at this conference, and it should be noted that this land contained key heavy industries, as well as 3 million GermansIn September 1938 Germany, Britain, France, and Italy met in Munich to decide what action, if any, to take concerning German demands for territory in Czechoslovakia. This conference came to be known as the Munich Conference. While there, Britain and France decided to allow Germany to annex the areas near the German border (the Sudetenland). Hitler said that it was his "final demand" in Europe.The action of Britain and France is regarded as appeasement.
How did great Britain and France enter the war?
If you are asking about World War II, Britain and France had a defence agreement with Poland which stated that if Poland was attacked, Britain and France would come to its aid. On September 1st 1939, German troops invaded Poland. Britain and France demanded that Germany should immediately withdraw its troops from Poland. The German government ignored the demand so on September 3rd 1939, Britain and France simultaneously declared war on Germany.
How were Britain and France to blame for World War 2?
That's a strange interpretation of history! In the late 1930's, Britain and France had a defence agreement with Poland which stated that if Poland was attacked by another country, Britain and France would come to its aid. On September 1st 1939, German troops invaded Poland without warning. Britain and France then issued an ultimatum to Germany saying that if they did not immediately withdraw their troops from Poland, 'a state of war would exist'. Germany totally ignored the demand to withdraw, so on September 3rd 1939, Britain and France jointly declared war on Germany.
Munich Agreement?
Gave Hitler his supposed "last territorial demand" (the Sudetenland) to avoid war
What were some of the act committed by German forces that prompted Britain and France to declare war on Hitler?
German troops attacked Poland on Septemer 1st 1939. Britain and France declared war on Germany two days later. But also before that, Germany had been taking and bringing other countries into the Third Reich. France was conquered in as little as 6 weeks which showed how well Germany's army was built.
Was Britain and France appeasement reasonable?
According to some, appeasement was reasonable because Great Britain and France were in no shape to fight another war with Germany. The only other option was appeasement, which allowed Germany to take control of the Sudetenland. Some say that it encouraged Germany to demand even more, but to most officials in France and Great Britain, appeasement was the most reasonable solution.
What 3 countries were fighting for land in the 1700s in North America?
The United States and Great Britain argued over who should be Oregon. President Polk asked his people to demand that the US have it. Basically Polk bluffed Great Britain into giving most of Oregon to the United States.
In which island is there a demand for independence from France?
Corsica
