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Because he was the Danzig queen.

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Q: Why did Hitler demand Danzig as Germany territory?
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How might the allied demand for unconditional surrender have helped Hitler to maintain his control over Germany?

he committed suicide.


How did Hitler respond to French and British appeasement?

he responded by asking for more and more. he broke the agreements made as a result of Germany apparently starting WW1. He was given land such as the Sudetenland through appeasement which caused him to undermine the power of Britain and France. he became more powerful and confident with each successful demand, and this is one of the caused of WW2.


What country did Hitler demand in Czechoslovakia?

It wasnt a country. It was an area around Czechoslovakia that was called the Sudentland. He said the Czechs were misstreating Germans


What did Hitler declared at the Munich Conference?

Britain and France gave in to Hitler's demands for the Sudetenland. Czechoslovakia was not present at this conference, and it should be noted that this land contained key heavy industries, as well as 3 million GermansIn September 1938 Germany, Britain, France, and Italy met in Munich to decide what action, if any, to take concerning German demands for territory in Czechoslovakia. This conference came to be known as the Munich Conference. While there, Britain and France decided to allow Germany to annex the areas near the German border (the Sudetenland). Hitler said that it was his "final demand" in Europe.The action of Britain and France is regarded as appeasement.


What area in northwestern Czechoslovakia did Hitler demand and was givin?

OK, i know those who were searching for the answer are tired of that idiot before with his nonsense so the answer is Sudetenland

Related questions

What did Hitler demand from Poland?

the Polsih corridor and the city of danzig- it was taken away from germany at the end of WW1.


How might the allied demand for unconditional surrender have helped Hitler to maintain his control over Germany?

he committed suicide.


What did Nazi Germany receive in January 1943 that surprised Hitler?

The Allies sent Hitler a demand for an unconditional surrender in January 1943.


The British responded to Hitler's demand for Czechoslovakian territory by?

They used a policy of appeasement. They met in Munich, Germany to sign the Munich Pact to allow Hitler to take the Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia. This act made them look like fools when they learned Hitler had already sent troops into the Sudetenland before the Munich Conference and the signing of the pact.


What nations did Hitler take over or demand in the lead up to actual war?

Germany annexed Austria in 1938 one year before WWII. The name of the annexation was called Anschluss.


Did forced labor in Hitler's concentration camps lead to unemployment in the working class of Germany?

No , not necessarily , because in a war-time economy labor was in high demand .


What region did Hitler demand to be handed over?

The Sudetenland


What area did Hitler demand in northwestern Czechoslovakia?

The Sudetenland


Who helped in German aggression?

British Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain and other European leaders followed a policy of Appeasement, allowing Hitler to occupy the Rhineland, annex Austria, and claim the Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia for Germany without firing a shot. This emboldened Hitler to demand former German territory lost in the Treaty of Versailles to Poland, making his invasion of Poland practically inevitable; especially sine he had signed a secret non-aggression pact with Russia to divide Poland between them.


What did Hitler do when his First demand was met in Czechoslovakia?

made more demands


What were the three main points of the Treaty of Versailles?

There were many demands of the treaty of Versailles but the main three were that Germany had to pay reperations of £6600 million to the countries that it went to war against. Germany also had 13% of its territory taken away, this included Danzig, the polish corridor and the Ruhr. The other main demand was that the Germans had to take the full blame for the war and this was called the war guilt clause.


Why appeasement isn't affective?

Appeasement - giving a thug what he says he wants, to keep him from threatening you further - only encourages the thug to demand more, and then more, and then MORE. The thug is getting rich, and you're being worn down by continuing threats. Eventually, the thug is going demand more than you can give him. The same principle works the same way in international politics. A thug - or tyrant, in this scenario - demands concessions of rights, power, land, people, whatever. If you give in, he'll demand more later. and then more, and MORE, until you surrender or finally go to war. That's how it was in 1934. The German Army had been limited, by the Versailles treaty, to a very small army, a small navy, and NO air force. A section of Germany called the "Rhineland" along the Rhine river had been taken from Germany and set up as a tribute zone between Germany and France. The French had suffered terribly in "The Great War", and didn't want to risk a second conflict. So in 1936, the German Army re-occupied the Rhineland in clear violation of the Versailles treaty. The French and British forces would have been easily able to defeat the tiny (but rapidly growing, in secret) German Army; the campaign might have taken six weeks, at the cost of a few thousand dead. But the French appeased the Germans by not insisting on the Treaty obligations. Three more times, the Germans would demand more territory, more concessions, but each time they promised that THIS time would be the last demand - and the British and French appeased Hitler. In October 1938, Hitler invaded and took over the nation of Czechoslovakia, and assured the British Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain that Hitler had "no further territorial ambitions in Europe". Chamberlain flew back from Munich, Germany to London and declared, at the airport holding the agreement signed by Hitler, that Chamberlain had come back with an assurance of "peace for our time". Almost immediately, Hitler broke this agreement, and began demanding territory in Poland and the city of Danzig, a "free city" that had once been part of Germany. Chamberlain was outraged, and declared that there would be no more appeasements. World War II started about 10 months later. Danzig was re-incorporated into Germany as Germany overran Poland. (Seven years later, with Germany crushed between the Allied troops of the Americans and British armies to the west and the Red Army of the Soviet Union to the east, Danzig became the Polish city of "Gdansk", as this city is still known.) Appeasement doesn't work with thugs or tyrants; the only thing that they respect is superior force. Had the French and British re-occupied the Rhineland in 1936, Hitler would have been killed or imprisoned, and the Great War would not have become World War One, and there never would have been a "World War 2". In terms of modern history, please compare THESE events to what is happening in Ukraine in 2014; the Crimea re-occupied, western Ukraine invaded by "Ukrainian separatists" who spoke Russian and had Russian Navy and Army insignia. The increasing level of violence happening there. Karl Marx wrote that history repeats itself; first as tragedy, and the second time as farce. This is the tragic phase of this repetition of Austria and Czechoslovakia. For more on this topic, read Winston Churchill's book "The Gathering Storm", the first volume of his six-book series about the Second World War.