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All speech has rhythm, but in much of his dialogue, Shakespeare has his characters speak in iambic rhythm. This rhythm is actually fairly close to the natural rhythm of speech, and therefore does not sound too unnatural. On the one hand, the regular rhythm made the lines easy for the actors to learn, which they had to do in a very short time. It also gives the lines a dignity and beauty which they would not otherwise have, in the same way that dancing or marching is more attractive than random walking.
What else can I help you with?
When were Shakespeare's plays first put together?
The first volume of Shakespeare's Collected Plays was called the First Folio and was published in 1623.
What was the purpose that William Shakespeare wrote his plays?
Shakespeare wrote his plays to make money. He was part owner of a theatre company and they made more money if they had new plays and good plays to put on. Shakespeare was able to provide the company with both.
Why did Shakespeare write most of his plays in iambic pentameter?
Iambic pentameter is the verse form which most closely approximates the rhythm of English speech.
What is the rhythm is Shakespeare's work?
Iambic pentameter.
Shakespeare's other theatrical occupation besides that of playwright?
Shakespeare was also an actor, in addition to his plays and poetry. He and the other members of The Globe Theater put on many of the plays that they wrote.
Who were Shakespeare's plays specifically written for?
Shakespeare wrote his plays for theatre companies who would put them on and pay him for them. After he became a partner in a theatre company in 1594 he wrote all of his plays specifically for his own company to perform.
What plays did the kings men own from shakespeare?
All of them. That's why they were able to put out a collected plays volume called the First Folio seven years after Shakespeare died. The King's Men owned the scripts and the right to publish them; Shakespeare did not.
What are the 3 styles of plays shakespeare used?
When the first Complete Shakespeare edition (called the First Folio) was published, it was called "William Shakespeare's Histories, Tragedies and Comedies" and all the plays were put into one of those three categories.
Why did Shakespeare like his plays?
We have no record of what Shakespeare thought of anything, so we really cannot tell if he was proud of his work or not. The plays helped to put food on the table which of course was always a good point.
Did people speak in the way they did in shakespeares plays?
Just actors. Most of Shakespeare's plays are in verse--they have a rigid rhythm to them. Some of the lines even rhyme. None of this is the way people really talked. Sometimes Shakespeare's characters speak in prose, without a set rhythm, which is closer to natural speech. Yet even so, when Shakespeare's lines are compared with those of some of his contemporaries, who tried harder to imitate the way people really talked, the difference is clear. Shakespeare's characters are much easier to understand for us because he does not use slang idioms.
What caused Shakespeare to put the topics of Witchcraft and Supernatural beings in his plays?
give me a bunch questions pertaining to this like...Did he have a mental illness that caused him to put strange things into his plays?
What type of shows did they perform in the globe theatre?
The Globe Theatre, unlike some of the other theatres, was used exclusively to put on plays. Other theatres, like the Hope and the Swan, sometimes had bearbaiting and other types of entertainment. However, contrary to popular supposition, they put on a broad variety of plays, and not just plays by Shakespeare. Shakespeare wrote no more than two or three new plays a year (after all, his total output was 38 plays in a 23-year career), yet the theatre companies had to premiere a new play every week or so. That means that most of the plays they put on were not by Shakespeare.
