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Chamberlin was following a policy of appeasement, which meant giving Hitler what he wanted in hope that he didnt declair war and that he stopped being agressive. Moreover, he knew that the British army was not ready for war, so by giving Hitler what he wanted, it brought Britain more time to prepare itself for war. The Germans had been busily rearming for several years, and the British had done little more than maintain small forces. Chamberlain also seems to have sincerely believed his disreputable trading of the Czechs for peace would really be enough to satisfy Hitler and insure continued peace.

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Q: Why did chamberllin allow Germany to take part of Czechoslovakia?
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Related questions

In what year did the western allies allow Germany to occupy part of Czechoslovakia?

1948


What else did Germany invade?

Germany has a history of invading other countries. On the 15th of March 1939, Germany invaded Sudetenland which was part of Czechoslovakia. They would later invade the entire Czechoslovakia later in the 1940s.


In September 1938 the western part of Czechoslovakia known by this name was annexed by Germany?

Austria


What policy allowed Germany to annex part of Czechoslovakia?

cheese cheese gonorrhea


How was the the United Kingdom's treatment of Czechoslovakia different from its treatment of Poland in the years before World War 2?

The United Kingdom allowed Germany to take over part of Czechoslovakia, but it came to Poland's defense when Germany invaded. However, Britain was ill-prepared to stop the occupation of Poland by Germany and by the Soviet Union.


What two areas surrounding Germany did Hitler annex in 1936 and 1938?

The Sudetenland (a part of Czechoslovakia) and Austria.


What was the conference in 1938 in which British and French leaders allowed Germany to annex part of Czechoslovakia?

Munich ConferenceMunich Conference


What was the Sudetenland and why did Germany want to annex it?

It's a region in Czechoslovakia (now the Czech Republic) that runs along the border with Germany. Adolf Hitler wanted to annex it because there's a lot of German people there, and he said that those Sudeten-Germans actually wanted to be a part of Germany, not Czechoslovakia.


How was the united kingdom's treatment of Czechoslovakia different from its treatment of Poland in the years before war?

The United Kingdom allowed Germany to take over part of Czechoslovakia, but it came to Poland's defense when Germany invaded. However, Britain was ill-prepared to stop the occupation of Poland by Germany and by the Soviet Union.


Where did Oskar Schindler grow up?

Zittau, which was on the border between Germany and what was then Czechoslovakia. He grew up in the Czech part of the town.


What country was a victim of great Britain and France's policy of appeasement?

Czechoslovakia, which was invaded by Germany with permission from Britain and France given at the Munich Conference. You ask which country was a "victim" of Britain's and France's willingness to appease Hitler, but you are not understanding the basic facts. The Sudetenland wanted to be part of Germany because they were Germans and they were separated from Germany after World War 1. So they were glad to get reconnected to Germany. Hitler used the issue of Sudetenland against Czechoslovakia. Czechoslovakia (including Sudetenland) were not part of Germany before WW1, but part of Austria-Hungary. When Austria-Hungary was broken-up as result of WW1, then Hitler decided to seize German-speaking Austria and then create a crisis w/ Czechoslovakia. Czechoslovakia was seen as the victim of appeasement. By loosing the Sudetenland, they lost valuable territory rich in lignite, coal. So there was a victim - Czechoslavakia.


HOW WAS THE UNITED KINGDOMS TREATMENT OF Czechoslovakia DIFFERENT FROM ITS TREATMENT OF POLAND IN THE YEARS BEFORE WORLD WAR 2?

The United Kingdom allowed Germany to take over part of Czechoslovakia, but it came to Poland's defense when Germany invaded. However, Britain was ill-prepared to stop the occupation of Poland by Germany and by the Soviet Union.