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Mostly because they didn't belong to him. They were the property of the company, not the author.

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13y ago

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What books by Shakespeare begin with o?

One of Shakespeare's plays (which could be published as a book, although Shakespeare himself never had it published, or ever intended that it should be) is called Othello.


When was Shakespeare's first play and poems published?

Shakespeare only ever published his poems Venus and Adonis and Rape of Lucrece in 1593 and 1594 respectively. He was not responsible for the publications of his plays which were either pirate copies or published by his acting company. Shakespeare never claimed publication rights in his plays and never published them.


How many of shakespeare's plays weren't published?

It is difficult to say exactly, because the knowledge we have may not be exhaustive. We are aware of the titles of four plays which Shakespeare is said to have written which were not included in the 1623 First Folio. Of these, we have quarto versions of two of them, Pericles, published in 1609, and The Two Noble Kinsmen, published in 1634. Two more, Cardenio and Love's Labour's Won, we know by title, but do not have a copy of either. Were they ever published? We can't tell. Are there even more plays which Shakespeare wrote which we don't even know the name of? Quite possibly. A huge number of the plays written in Shakespeare's day were never published and have been forgotten about or would have been forgotten about if someone had not made a diary entry about them.


What is amazing about Shakespeare's plays?

Yes he is awesome the best ever!


Were the plays named as Shakespeare's actually written by him?

Actually, it's virtually certain that they were. The plays were all published, sometimes many times, with his name on the cover, and never with anyone else's name on them. There is no evidence of anyone ever publishing plays at that time under a pseudonym, and nobody in the history of literature has published plays where a well-known real person is identified as the author when that person was not the author. Shakespeare was a well-known actor in the London of the day; the plays were performed exclusively by the company he was known to have belonged to, and not by any other company. The facts as we know them are completely consistent with Shakespeare being the author of his plays.


Did Shakespeare actually write the plays that everyone thinks he did?

All of the evidence we have goes to say that he did. That is to say, all of the plays were published either without an author's name or with Shakespeare's name on them, and never with anyone else's name. They were exclusively performed by theatrical companies of which the actor William Shakespeare was a member, and were published by members of that company. Records of the same plays being played at court and elsewhere credit William Shakespeare with having written them. And never anyone else. On the other hand there is no evidence that anyone other than William Shakespeare of Stratford, the actor with the King's Men, wrote those plays. Nobody ever credits them to anyone else. There was nobody else by the name of William Shakespeare that we know of and nobody else called Shakespeare who was a writer. People did not write plays under a pseudonym in those days, and nobody at that time ever suggested that "William Shakespeare" was a pseudonym. You may say that is not absolute proof. Perhaps not, but absolute proof is not required for anything which we regularly accept as true. The proof that Shakespeare did indeed write what he is credited with is more than sufficient for us to accept it as fact.


Was Shakespeare a servant at one time?

shakespeare was never a servant he wrote plays and acted in them not sure if he was ever poor though


Was William Shakespeare fake?

Nope. Who wrote all the plays if he wasn't ever alive?


Were Shakespeare's plays ever published during his lifetime if not when were they published and in what form?

About half of Shakespeare's plays were published during his lifetime, including Romeo and Juliet, Hamlet, Titus Andronicus, both parts of Henry IV, Henry V, the second and third parts of Henry VI, King Lear, Love's Labour's Lost, Merry Wives of Windsor, Much Ado About Nothing, The Merchant of Venice, A Midsummer Night's Dream, Troilus and Cressida, Richard II, Richard III and Pericles


Why did scholars think Shakespeare was a fraud?

No scholars think Shakespeare was a fraud, or ever did. Some fringe theorists think that the scholars are frauds for insisting that the William Shakespeare who wrote all those plays and poetry is the same person as the William Shakespeare who was born in Stratford-upon-Avon, was married, had kids, owned property and died there, and also owned property in London, where he was well known as an actor and member of a theatre company and was close friends with the other members of that company, which happened to be the only company which ever performed the plays attributed to William Shakespeare. These theorists claim that the plays and poetry were really written by someone else who for some reason allowed them to be published under the name of Mr. Shakespeare who, along with most of the London theatre community of the day, were involved in a huge conspiracy to keep this secret. No coherent reason is ever given for why anyone would do that.


Did William Shakespeare ever play a part in one of his own play scripts?

Yes. The first Folio lists a number of actors who played in Shakespeare's plays, and Shakespeare himself is at the top of the list.


How did shakespeare become the greatest writer and play maker?

He wrote the greatest plays anyone has ever written.