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It was in his source. An essential part of the Hamlet story is that Hamlet feigns madness to keep his profile low while he plots the downfall of his uncle. Thus we hear that Hamlet will "put an antic disposition on" immediately after seeing the ghost. In the sources, Hamlet's assumed lunacy convinces his uncle that he is not a danger, so that he doesn't do Hamlet in. In Shakespeare's story, Claudius is not so easily fooled, and he does try to do Hamlet in, but it is his political sense and his love for Gertrude which keep him from doing it in an obvious way. Hamlet gets lucky and wriggles out of Claudius's trap.

There is the additional element of lunacy in poor Ophelia. Her insanity is genuine, but unfortunately nobody believes that she drowned because she was insane, causing her to be buried without Christian rites.

It is an irony that Hamlet's fake madness takes so many people in, yet Ophelia's real madness does not.

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Q: Why does shakespeare introduce the element of madness in Hamlet?
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