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This would seem to be the case and is a good question however Jesus Himself answers it in the account from Matthew:

13Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. 14But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? 15And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

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Q: Why if Jesus is sinless then it is Jesus who should be baptizing John not the other way around?
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