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Because he was a king of "Macedonians" which werent Greeks as Greeks say.What a greek philosopher says:

... not only no Greek, nor related to the Greeks, but not even a barbarian from any place that can be named with honors, but a pestilent knave from Macedonia, whence it was never yet possible to buy a decent slave" - Demosthenes, Third Philippic, 31.

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13y ago

What else can I help you with?