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I presume what you are asking is "Why does the psi function have no physical significance while psi squared does?"
The reason is simple but somewhat frustrating -- in our Universe, it just does! There's no reason WHY a Universe could exist where the psi function is, itself, something we can measure over time. Just like a Universe COULD exist where gravitational attraction depends on inverse cube of the distance between two masses. But, in our Universe, the usefulness of the psi function is in its square.
If all we know is psi itself, there's no way for us to measure anything -- even over time -- that would depend solely on psi. But we CAN measure things that, over time, depend out of the square of psi. And the experimental results are clear: the square of psi DOES predict something, psi itself does not.
Whether we like it or not, that's how our Universe operates.
A few centuries ago, all we humans knew was that planets moved around our Sun in eliptical orbits. We could not explain WHY that was the case, we just knew the mathematics matched the experimental evidence. Eventually we (actually, Isaac newton almost entirely by himself) developed a theory of gravity that allowed us to derive eliptical orbits. Perhaps scientists of the future will be able to develop a theory from which the psi function can be derived. We can only hope.
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Why time isn't an operator in quantum mechanics?
Associated with each measurable parameter in a physical system is a quantum mechanical operator. Now although not explicitly a time operator the Hamiltonian operator generates the time evolution of the wavefunction in the form H*(Psi)=i*hbar(d/dt)*(Psi), where Psi is a function of both space and time. Also I don't believe that in the formulation of quantum mechanics (QM) time appears as a parameter, not as a dynamical variable. Also, if time were an operator what would be the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of such an operator? Note:A dynamical time operator has been proposed in relativistic quantum mechanics. A paper I found on the topic is; Zhi-Yong Wang and Cai-Dong Xiong , "Relativistic free-motion time-of-arrival", J. Phys. A: Math. Theor. 40 1987 - 1905(2007)
Why normalization in quantum mechanics?
Normalization in quantum mechanics is important because it ensures that the wavefunction describing the state of a system has a well-defined probability interpretation. The wavefunction must be normalized, meaning that the integral of the squared magnitude of the wavefunction over all space is equal to 1. This allows us to interpret the square of the wavefunction as the probability density of finding the particle in a particular state.
Physical significance of green function in quantum mechanics?
There are two parts to this. First is, "What is the physical significance of a wave function?" Secondly, "Why do we normalize it?"To address the first:In the Wave Formulation of quantum mechanics the wave function describes the state of a system by way of probabilities. Within a wave function all 'knowable' (observable) information is contained, (e.g. position (x), momentum (p), energy (E), ...). Connected to each observable there is a corresponding operator [for momentum: p=-i(hbar)(d/dx)]. When the operator operates onto the wave function it extracts the desired information from it. This information is called the eigenvalue of the observable... This can get lengthy so I'll just leave it there. For more information I suggest reading David Griffith's "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics". A math knowledge of Calculus II should suffice.To address the second:Normalization is simply a tool such that since the probability of finding a particle in the range of +/- (infinity) is 100% then by normalizing the wave function we get rid of the terms that muddy up the answer the probability.An un-normalized wave function is perfectly fine. It has only been adopted by convention to normalize a wave function.ex. un-normalized wave function (psi is defined as my wave function)- The integral from minus infinity to positive infinity of |psi|^2 dx = 2piex. normalized wavefunction- The integral from minus infinity to positive infinity of |psi|^2 dx = 1
Why do you normalise a wave function of a particle?
There are two parts to this. First is, "What is the physical significance of a wave function?" Secondly, "Why do we normalize it?"To address the first:In the Wave Formulation of quantum mechanics the wave function describes the state of a system by way of probabilities. Within a wave function all 'knowable' (observable) information is contained, (e.g. position (x), momentum (p), energy (E), ...). Connected to each observable there is a corresponding operator [for momentum: p=-i(hbar)(d/dx)]. When the operator operates onto the wave function it extracts the desired information from it. This information is called the eigenvalue of the observable... This can get lengthy so I'll just leave it there. For more information I suggest reading David Griffith's "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics". A math knowledge of Calculus II should suffice.To address the second:Normalization is simply a tool such that since the probability of finding a particle in the range of +/- (infinity) is 100% then by normalizing the wave function we get rid of the terms that muddy up the answer the probability.An un-normalized wave function is perfectly fine. It has only been adopted by convention to normalize a wave function.ex. un-normalized wave function (psi is defined as my wave function)- The integral from minus infinity to positive infinity of |psi|^2 dx = 2piex. normalized wavefunction- The integral from minus infinity to positive infinity of |psi|^2 dx = 1
Write the calculation of second excited state of Simple harmonic oscillator by variational method?
For help with solving quantum mechanics homework problems Google "physics forums". Providing an answer to this question will yield no value to the community and the answer so long that I would have spend a too long writing it. To help you get started; use the corresponding normalized |psi> (Dirac notation), build the Hamiltonian for the SHO then find the expectation value of the Hamiltonian.
Why time isn't an operator in quantum mechanics?
Associated with each measurable parameter in a physical system is a quantum mechanical operator. Now although not explicitly a time operator the Hamiltonian operator generates the time evolution of the wavefunction in the form H*(Psi)=i*hbar(d/dt)*(Psi), where Psi is a function of both space and time. Also I don't believe that in the formulation of quantum mechanics (QM) time appears as a parameter, not as a dynamical variable. Also, if time were an operator what would be the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of such an operator? Note:A dynamical time operator has been proposed in relativistic quantum mechanics. A paper I found on the topic is; Zhi-Yong Wang and Cai-Dong Xiong , "Relativistic free-motion time-of-arrival", J. Phys. A: Math. Theor. 40 1987 - 1905(2007)
Write three dimensional Schrodinger wave equation for an electron. what is the physical significance of its wave funtion2?
The Wave function (psi) is just used as an identifier that the particle exhibits wave nature. Actually the square of the wave fn (psi2 ) - the probability amplitude- is the real significant parameter. The probability amplitude gives the maximum probability of observing the particle in a given region in space.
What is the significance of the cane of kappa alpha psi?
Our founding fathers believe in Jesus Christ and the cane represents the 'J' in Jesus.
Why normalization in quantum mechanics?
Normalization in quantum mechanics is important because it ensures that the wavefunction describing the state of a system has a well-defined probability interpretation. The wavefunction must be normalized, meaning that the integral of the squared magnitude of the wavefunction over all space is equal to 1. This allows us to interpret the square of the wavefunction as the probability density of finding the particle in a particular state.
Physical significance of green function in quantum mechanics?
There are two parts to this. First is, "What is the physical significance of a wave function?" Secondly, "Why do we normalize it?"To address the first:In the Wave Formulation of quantum mechanics the wave function describes the state of a system by way of probabilities. Within a wave function all 'knowable' (observable) information is contained, (e.g. position (x), momentum (p), energy (E), ...). Connected to each observable there is a corresponding operator [for momentum: p=-i(hbar)(d/dx)]. When the operator operates onto the wave function it extracts the desired information from it. This information is called the eigenvalue of the observable... This can get lengthy so I'll just leave it there. For more information I suggest reading David Griffith's "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics". A math knowledge of Calculus II should suffice.To address the second:Normalization is simply a tool such that since the probability of finding a particle in the range of +/- (infinity) is 100% then by normalizing the wave function we get rid of the terms that muddy up the answer the probability.An un-normalized wave function is perfectly fine. It has only been adopted by convention to normalize a wave function.ex. un-normalized wave function (psi is defined as my wave function)- The integral from minus infinity to positive infinity of |psi|^2 dx = 2piex. normalized wavefunction- The integral from minus infinity to positive infinity of |psi|^2 dx = 1
Why do you normalise a wave function of a particle?
There are two parts to this. First is, "What is the physical significance of a wave function?" Secondly, "Why do we normalize it?"To address the first:In the Wave Formulation of quantum mechanics the wave function describes the state of a system by way of probabilities. Within a wave function all 'knowable' (observable) information is contained, (e.g. position (x), momentum (p), energy (E), ...). Connected to each observable there is a corresponding operator [for momentum: p=-i(hbar)(d/dx)]. When the operator operates onto the wave function it extracts the desired information from it. This information is called the eigenvalue of the observable... This can get lengthy so I'll just leave it there. For more information I suggest reading David Griffith's "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics". A math knowledge of Calculus II should suffice.To address the second:Normalization is simply a tool such that since the probability of finding a particle in the range of +/- (infinity) is 100% then by normalizing the wave function we get rid of the terms that muddy up the answer the probability.An un-normalized wave function is perfectly fine. It has only been adopted by convention to normalize a wave function.ex. un-normalized wave function (psi is defined as my wave function)- The integral from minus infinity to positive infinity of |psi|^2 dx = 2piex. normalized wavefunction- The integral from minus infinity to positive infinity of |psi|^2 dx = 1
Write the calculation of second excited state of Simple harmonic oscillator by variational method?
For help with solving quantum mechanics homework problems Google "physics forums". Providing an answer to this question will yield no value to the community and the answer so long that I would have spend a too long writing it. To help you get started; use the corresponding normalized |psi> (Dirac notation), build the Hamiltonian for the SHO then find the expectation value of the Hamiltonian.
What you call this ψ?
Psi (uppercase Ψ, lowercase ψ; pronounced in English as /ˈsaɪ/, sigh) is the 23rd letter of the Greek alphabet and has a numeric value of 700. In both Classical and Modern Greek, the letter indicates the combination /ps/ (like in English "lapse"). The letter was adopted into the Old Italic alphabet, and its shape is continued into the Algiz rune of the Elder Futhark. Psi was also adopted into the early Cyrillic alphabet as Ѱ. In Greek loanwords in Latin and modern languages with Latin alphabets, Psi is usually transliterated as "ps". In English, due to phonotactic constraints, its pronunciation is usually simplified to /s/.The letter psi is commonly used in physics for representing a wavefunction in quantum mechanics, particularly with the Schrödinger equation and bra-ket notation: . It is also used to represent the (generalized) positional states of a qubit in a quantum computer.Psi is also used as the symbol for the polygamma function, defined bywhere Γ(x) is the gamma function.The letters Ψ or ψ can also be a symbol for:psychology, psychiatry, and sometimes parapsychology (involving paranormal or relating with the supernatural subjects).In mathematics, the reciprocal Fibonacci constant.Water potential in movement of water between plant cells.In biochemistry, it denotes the rare nucleotide pseudouridilic acid.Stream function in fluid mechanics defining the curve to which the flow velocity is always tangent.One of the dihedral angles in the backbones of proteinsThe planet NeptuneThe Schrödinger equation and throughout quantum mechanics, ψ(x) stands for the wave functionIndiana University (as a superimposed I and U)Gangster DisciplesA Sai, the name of which is pronounced the same way.Pharmacology, general pharmacyIn virology the ψ site is a viral packaging signal.The J/ψ meson, in particle physics.In the Computability Theory, represents the return value of a program .In the comic Monochrome, Psi is a mentally disturbed character, though her name is usually spelled out.In the television show Babylon 5, Ψ is the symbol of the Psi Corps.On Wikipedia, it stands for the currency WikiMoney, an inactive mutual funds system.
How much is one standard atmosphere 7.5 psi 12.5 psi 14.7 psi or 1.5 psi?
14.7 psi
The space in which electrons are likely to be found is called the?
It is called the electron cloud, the volume in which electrons are most likely to be found. This area is given by Schrodinger's wave equation, which defines psi, the wave function, which squared (psi2) is the probability density. Thus, high probability density equates high electron density. so get over it!
What psi on a dodge avenger?
Engine compression psi? Radiator cap psi? Engine oil pressure psi? Tire pressure psi? Fuel pressure psi?
What is 2500 kg per square meter in psi?
Approximately 3.56 psi.
