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because the french government had shown that it could not be trusted.
The Third Estate made up 95% of the population but had little power is the general Estates and they wanted equal privileges.
Not necessarily, you can have a capitalist economic system under an authoritarian regime as well as under a democratic regime. Some forms of economy, like central planning, occur much more easily under an authoritarian system than a more democratic one, but it is not wholly impossible for a democratic regime to embrace central planning.
Fiscal and monetary policies under managed floating exchange rate regimes?
Currency revaluation is the equivalent of currency appreciation, except that it occurs under a fixed exchange rate regime and is mandated by the government.
The upper-crust of the THIRD ESTATE was extremely dissatisfied with Ancien Regime in Pre-Revolution France.
because the french government had shown that it could not be trusted.
The Third Estate made up 95% of the population but had little power is the general Estates and they wanted equal privileges.
The Third Estate made up 95% of the population but had little power is the general Estates and they wanted equal privileges.
The Third Estate made up 95% of the population but had little power is the general Estates and they wanted equal privileges.
During World War 2 the Nazi regime governed Germany under the Third Reich and Adolph Hitler.
They were because they didn't have the power they used to have. Basically, the tenants of the land were not as powerful as they had been during the Middle Ages. It made them disappear completely as a result.
The members of the Third Estate felt under-represented because they did not hold the political or social sway that the other two states had. The First Estate was the clergy and the Second Estate was the nobility, this meant that they had a great deal of political, social and monetary sway which would have given them more power than the Third Estate.
The members of the Third Estate felt under-represented because they did not hold the political or social sway that the other two states had. The First Estate was the clergy and the Second Estate was the nobility, this meant that they had a great deal of political, social and monetary sway which would have given them more power than the Third Estate.
It depends on which point in French history. France at different times has operated under a monarchy, dictatorship, and democracy.In 1789, the social structure was:First was the priests very rich, powerful and influentialSecond were kings/nobles very rich absolute monarchThe third group was divided into two: bourgeois's - merchants, doctor's, lawyers, etc. and common people, the poor, exploited, and suffering
The third estate was treated unfairly under the old regime because they had to do all the labor, provide all the food, and were burdened with all the taxes of the French population. Also, when they complained of their oppression to the Estate's General (after Louis XVI called it back after 175 years) none of their suggested/ demanded reforms were passed, since they were outvoted by the first and second estates. The first and second estates were made up of the clergy and nobility, respectively, and they were happy with the way the government worked at the time, since they did not have to work or pay taxes. But they only made up about 3% of the population, and the third estate, the peasants, working class, and bourgeoisie (middle class) were 97% of France's population. Yet in the Estate's General, their influence was minimal since they only got one of three votes. Because of all this, the estate system contributed immensely to unrest in France, and later to the French Revolution
No. He was a dictator that killed millions of people under his regime.