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That has greatly varied. The most serious attempt to define it was when it was ruled that in order for something to be regarded as "obscene" it would have to utterly lack any " scientific, literary, artistic, political or social value", often called the SLAPS test. (The current standard is called the Miller Test; see Related Questions)

It has also depended on "community values", a rather nebulous term that in all practicality means "whatever the loudest citizen's group in your town can bully the DA into prosecuting".

It has even been circularly defined. As in: What is" Obscenity"? See prurient. What is "Prurient"? See obscenity.

Justice Potter Stewart, in 1964, quite honestly admitted that he could not define obscenity, but famously said, "I know it when I see it".

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Q: How has the US Supreme Court's interpretation of obscenity changed over time?
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The question is mis-leading and assumes an unproveable fact. Obscenity (as defined by the courts) receives no protection from the judicial system. Certain cases charging 'obscenity' have been brought to court and been rejected on the 'Free Speech' or 'Free Press' grounds but many have been prosecuted as well.


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