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john Locke thought no government can exist without the consent of the governed.

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How does beverage answer the charge that government people without their consent is wrong?

Beveridge argues that government action without the consent of the governed undermines the fundamental principles of democracy and individual rights. Consent is essential for legitimacy; when people are not consulted or represented, it leads to a disconnect between the government and its citizens. This lack of consent can result in oppression and a loss of trust in governmental institutions, highlighting the need for participatory governance. Ultimately, Beveridge advocates for a system where the voices and choices of the populace guide governmental decisions.


How does beveridge answer the charge that governing people without their consent in wrong?

(apex) Answer: He says some people are not capable of self-government.


Officials of the US government may not accept a gift or position with a foreign government without whose consent?

Government officials can't accept positions without Congress' consent.


According to John Locke what is the one thing that made government legitimate?

According to John Locke, the legitimacy of government stems from the consent of the governed. He argued that individuals possess natural rights to life, liberty, and property, and that governments are formed primarily to protect these rights. When a government fails to do so or acts without the consent of the people, it loses its legitimacy, and citizens have the right to revolt. Thus, the authority of government is derived from the agreement and trust of the people it serves.


Does one country have the right to control another country without the consent of the governed?

No. That idea went out of the window in the aftermath of the fall of the Berlin wall.

Related Questions

Why does consent of the government matter?

Consent of the governed matters because if the governed people do not consent to the governing body, they will revolt against it. It is also considered unjust to rule over people without their consent.


Why consent of the governed matters?

Consent of the governed matters because if the governed people do not consent to the governing body, they will revolt against it. It is also considered unjust to rule over people without their consent.


This political scientist and author of Two Treatises on Civil Government believed that no government can exist without the consent of the governed and that the primary purpose of the state was to prot?

John Locke


How does beveridge answer te charge that governing people without their consent is wrong?

He says that some people are not capable of self-government and pointed out that the United States already does it with Native Americans.


Is consent of the governed an important principle in Britain?

Yes it's essential in a democracy; without consent there'd be no authority.


How does Beveridge answer the charge that governing people without their consent is wrong the charge that governing people without their consent is wrong?

He compares the people of the Philippines to children who are governed without consent


How does beverage answer the charge that government people without their consent is wrong?

Beveridge argues that government action without the consent of the governed undermines the fundamental principles of democracy and individual rights. Consent is essential for legitimacy; when people are not consulted or represented, it leads to a disconnect between the government and its citizens. This lack of consent can result in oppression and a loss of trust in governmental institutions, highlighting the need for participatory governance. Ultimately, Beveridge advocates for a system where the voices and choices of the populace guide governmental decisions.


Is a political scientist and author of Two Treatises on Civil Government who believed that government could exist without the consent of the governed and that the primary purpose of the state was to p?

The political scientist you are referring to is likely Thomas Hobbes, not John Locke, who authored "Two Treatises of Government." Hobbes believed that a strong, centralized authority was necessary to maintain order and prevent chaos, arguing that a social contract justified the state's power over individuals. He contended that government could exist without the consent of the governed, as the primary purpose of the state was to ensure security and stability. In contrast, Locke emphasized the importance of consent and natural rights in his political philosophy.


The colonists slogan no taxation without representation expresses a belief in?

the consent of the governed


How does beveridge answer the charge that governing people without their consent in wrong?

(apex) Answer: He says some people are not capable of self-government.


How does beveridge answer the change that governing people without their governed without consent?

Beveridge argues that governing people without their consent undermines the legitimacy of authority and violates democratic principles. He emphasizes that true governance should be based on the consent of the governed, as it fosters accountability and respect for individual rights. Without consent, the governing body risks alienating its citizens and can lead to unrest or rebellion. Ultimately, Beveridge advocates for participatory governance as essential for maintaining social cohesion and political stability.


Officials of the US government may not accept a gift or position with a foreign government without whose consent?

Government officials can't accept positions without Congress' consent.