No, only the owner of the property would be able to break the agreement assuming the landlord had valid reason(s) for taking the action.
If the lease has expired and the co-signer has NOT signed the month-to-month agreement, the co-signer should be off the hook.
You can find your answer in your lease agreement. The fee is legal and payable if you signed a rental agreement that specified this amount as a late fee and you paid your rent late.
There is no set width for an easement. An easement is defined by an agreement between the two property owners. Some easements have standard sizes such as roads or utility easements.
In Texas, Yes. However, the lease agreement has to have a provision that states the house can be sold while you are leasing it, if not, you can take them to court to make them fulfill their end of the lease agreement
Not unless your lease specifically states that the landlord shall maintain snow removal. Otherwise this duty is delegated to the tenant. The property owner retains their duty to maintain public easements (which include the sidewalk) from snow, ice, trash, and repair. However, certain rights can be assigned by a lease agreement or implied heavily by it.In most jurisdictions, a court will hold that since the tenant has exclusive control of the property, they had the duty to maintain the sidewalks in a reasonable manner.
Before you regret it in the future, you should talk the issue about the manager of the agency, and it will depend on your agreement on what would be the right thing to do on how and when you can terminate his contract.
No. Being a "co-habitant" does not bestow any legal rights if you're not on the deed. Also, if you signed a contract to make certain the property was to be kept separate from yours then you are doubly prevented from making any claim. You have no standing.
No, not unless you had that agreement in writing with the owner of the property who has agreed to take back a mortgage in a sale of the property to you.No, not unless you had that agreement in writing with the owner of the property who has agreed to take back a mortgage in a sale of the property to you.No, not unless you had that agreement in writing with the owner of the property who has agreed to take back a mortgage in a sale of the property to you.No, not unless you had that agreement in writing with the owner of the property who has agreed to take back a mortgage in a sale of the property to you.
No. They are legal definitions.
In some states yes, in others no. Before demolition the landlord must give notices to vacate. The leases must expire or terminate in favor of the tenant.
If there is no agreement between the landowner and the property manager that gives the property manager authority to sign in the name of the landowner, and no request for permission to do so, then the act of the property manager executing a lease agreement with a tenant might not be legal.
No. She would need her husband's written consent to make the agreement binding. All the owners of the property must sign.
AnswerPre-Nuptial agreement. Sometimes a post-nuptial agreement is done which means the agreement was signed after marriage instead of before.
A landlord can put a witness signature in a lease agreement. A property owner can also sign as a witness to a lease agreement.
An agreement form is essentially a lease agreement that you are going to pay rent installments on your commercial property. If you are opening a barber shop, this is a form you sign to indicate that you own that business property. Yes, you do need one.
You probably don't have to (landlord/tenant laws vary by state), but you would be really stupid to rent property without a written agreement.
This is a line from a purchase or lease agreement fora piece of property. It implies that whatever option is being specified will remain with the property for subsequent purchasers and cannot be stricken from the agreement.