Not if you have a copy of the bill of sale. Not if you claimed the sale as income on your annual taxes and have documentation so proving.
Short answer: The concept is "Littering" If you own a car and abandon it, there are costs for cleaning up your mess.
Yes, you can sell an impounded vehicle, Unless the car has a hold on it in connection with a crime, in which case there would be no storage fees. Mind you, the buyer is liable for any tickets that go to the plate that was on the car at the time of impound.
If a person is driving a car and he/she is uninsured but the vehicle in which he is driving is registered and insured to another individual, the registered owner is liable for the damages to the other pwesond's vehicle.
Yes, it is a wise move as this can avoid substantial storage costs regardless of who is ultimately determined liable.
If the vehicle is not properly registered the insurance company is not liable. Unless at the time the "temporary tag" was valid. I used to work as an attorney for Liberty Mutual. In California, whether or not a car is currently registered is not relevant to the insurance coverage. The insurance company is still on the hook, even if the registration has expired at some point after the insurance company issued its policy.
Liable and flyable. I'm not liable if it's not flyable or not reliable!Plyable, Liable,
If your state requires your legally registered vehicle to be insured at all times, your lack of insurance MAY be of some interest to law enforcement. HOWEVER - if the other party's vehicle struck your vehicle then THEIR insurance is liable of the damages. It makes no difference whether or not your insurance was in effect at the time, or not.
ownership makes you liable for the bill which only increases every day it is there and you will be billed for all storage (based on duration) at time of repo, unless you can get lien holder to intervene based on settlement you just made to help you get it out
He is liable for the damages caused to the property.
In a word.... YES...... Your landlord has a duty to not cause damage to the property of others
A man cannot be without a domicile, for he is not supposed to have abandoned his last domicile until he has acquired a new one.
No, a co signor would not be liable. A co-buyer would be liable.