yes
GNP = GDP + NFIA If NFIA positive, then GNP greater than GDP. +NFIA = GNP - GDP If NFIA negative, then GDP greater than GNP. -NFIA = GDP - GNP
The country's GNP is greater than its GDP
the country's GNP is greater than its GDP
current GDP rate
GNP is higher when there is more income generated from Americans on our land and abroad then there is by the income generated domestically alone.
No..GNP is greater than GDP for Bangladesh
GNP = GDP + NFIA If NFIA positive, then GNP greater than GDP. +NFIA = GNP - GDP If NFIA negative, then GDP greater than GNP. -NFIA = GDP - GNP
The short answer is that they didn't. GNP and GDP are to different economic indicators. They are however related. However I have noticed that a lot of US statistics prefer to GDP rather than GNP to describe US economy. A reason given by the Federal Reserve Bank of St. Louis in 1992 "GDP corresponds more closely than GNP does to other indicators used to analyze short-term movements in the U.S. economy, such as employment and industrial production." GNP = GDP + NR GDP = consumption + investment + (government spending) + (exports − imports)
The country's GNP is greater than its GDP
the country's GNP is greater than its GDP
the country’s GNP is greater than its GDP
because they produce lots of tomatoes
current GDP rate
GNP is higher when there is more income generated from Americans on our land and abroad then there is by the income generated domestically alone.
i have a homework about turkey's gnp between 1923 to 2013
GNP = GDP + net receipts from foreigners to domestic companies - net receipts from home to foreign companies
niyandiqhela(xhosa) u are negatively used to me