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It can be argued that income inequality is the same as poverty: Being poor and rich are relative terms, meaning "how much do you have compared to other people". In this definition, without income inequality there is no poverty. Even if everyone is living just marginally above starvation, as long as it is the same for everyone it would be described as "that's life" or similar, not as poverty.

There are also arguments that income inequality is a major driving force for increasing the standard of living for everyone: Risk takers like people starting a business will only do this if they think they can make good money on it, and by doing so they supply jobs and increase productivity for the entire society. Although society will have poor people (by the mere fact that some of these businesses will succeed and their owners thereby get rich) even the poor will get a higher standard of living in absolute terms than what would otherwise be the case.

I think there are merits to both views, but I don't have a final answer.

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14y ago
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13y ago

I think that would be a logical conclusion -- sort of the opposite of "it takes money to make money." From an economics standpoint, poverty decreases the spending power of consumers. When people don't buy, the economy doesn't do well and poverty tends to spiral.

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Q: How does unequal distribution of income cause poverty?
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