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It will be so because it will not achieve a social equilbrium of marginal benefit (demand) = marginal cost (supply). It will instead set a private profit equilibrium where private benefit (marginal revenue) = marginal cost and thus create a deadweight inefficiency equal to the difference in total social surplus between the regions.

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13y ago
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13y ago

This depends on the market involved and if the monopoly is monopoly in both. With price-discriminating monopolies, they convert all consumer surplus to producer surplus by charging exactly maximum willingness-to-pay (WTP) for each unit left of the marginal cost = marginal benefit monopoly profit condition. If the markets and conditions are the same, this condition will be true in both.

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Q: How will equilibirium be determined under discriminating monopoly with two markets?
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