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Why is price per unit equal to the average revenue and marginal revenue of a firm under perfect competition?

Under Perfect competition , Marginal revenue is constant and equal to the prevailing market price, since all units are sold at the same price. Thus in pure competition MR = AR = P.


Economic profits result whenever only a few large competitors are active in a given market?

This statement is not true, and reflects a simplistic view of the link between the number of competitors and the vigor of competition. Holding buyer power constant, competition can sometimes be fierce in markets that involve only a handful of competitors. Similarly, markets involving several competitors may have little or no effective competition. For example, despite the fact that there are relatively few providers of general aviation equipment, competition for new plane orders is often fierce and suppliers seldom earn above-normal profits. On the other hand, textile and agricultural markets involve thousands of competitors that are sometimes sheltered from import competition by trade barriers and government price support programs. To accurately assess the vigor of competition in any given market, one must carefully analyze market structure (including the number and size distribution of competitors), competitor behavior and industry performance.


What is the velocity of money if the nominal interest rate is constant?

If the nominal interest rate is constant, then PY is constant in the equation PY = MV, so V will remain constant so long as money supply does not change.


WHY under perfect competition AR equals MR?

In a perfect competition, a firm can sell any amount of output at a given market price. It means firm's additional revenue(MR) from the sale of every additional unit of the commodity will be just equal to the market price (i.e. AR). Hence average revenue and marginal revenue become equal (AR=MR) and constant in that situation. Consequently the AR and MR curve will be same and would be horizontal or parallel to the x-axis.


Are unplanned changes in inventories rising falling or constant at equilibrium GDP?

They are constant at equilibrium GDP.

Related Questions

Is force different in a frictionless floor?

Yes, in a frictionless environment, there is no force opposing motion, so objects will continue to move at a constant velocity unless acted upon by an external force. This means that less force is required to maintain or change an object's motion on a frictionless floor compared to a floor with friction.


If a cart is observed moving at a constant velocity along a horizontal frictionless track is there a constant net force acting on it in the direction of motion?

No force is acting on it. Constant velocity means no acceleration, which means no force, from f=ma, no 'a' no force.


What is the accereleration of 2kg mass slding down a frictionless ramp?

The acceleration of a 2kg mass sliding down a frictionless ramp is equal to the acceleration due to gravity, which is approximately 9.8 m/s^2. This acceleration remains constant as there is no force acting against the motion of the mass on a frictionless surface.


What is the meaning of universal values?

It is a constant for everywhere everytime


Why 'G'is called universal gravitational constant?

Gravitational because it is related to gravity; universal because it is expected to apply everywhere; constant because it is expected to be the same everywhere.


During the swing of a frictionless pendulum what energy forms remain constant?

In a frictionless pendulum, the total mechanical energy (the sum of potential and kinetic energy) remains constant. This means that as the pendulum swings back and forth, the energy is continuously exchanged between potential and kinetic energy, but the total amount of energy remains the same.


How much force is required to keep a body moving with constants speed on a frictionless surface?

On a frictionless surface, no force is required to keep a body moving with constant speed. According to Newton's first law of motion, an object in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an external force. Thus, in the absence of friction, the body will continue to move at a constant speed indefinitely.


Why is mass measured by spring balance is not constant everywhere?

because


Does the weight of the body remains constant everywhere in the universe?

no it does not remain contant.


Where is time?

time is a constant, therefore it is everywhere at anytime in all places


If you slide a hockey puck across a frictionless ice rink these must be a horizontal force on it too keep it in the motion?

F=ma constant speed would mean 'a' acceleration is zero thus force zero. The puck would be in equilibrium, and the force would be zero at constant motion. Constant motion is constant velocity including the constant zero velocity.


Why uniform flow cannot occur in a frictionless channel?

Uniform flow cannot occur in a frictionless channel because the absence of friction does not allow for energy dissipation, causing the flow velocity to remain constant throughout the channel. In reality, energy is lost to friction, resulting in a non-uniform velocity profile.

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