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The aggregate demand must be increased so that producers can sell more goods.

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Q: If the economy is experiencing a recessionary GDP gap then aggregate?
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If full employment in this economy is 130 million will there be an inflationary expenditure gap or a recessionary gap What will be the consequence of this gap By how much would aggregate expenditures?

A recessionary gap. Equilibrium GDP is $600 billion, while full employment GDP is $700 billion. Employment will be 20 million less than at full employment. Aggregate expenditures would have to increase by $20 billion (= $700 billion -$680 billion) at each level of GDP to eliminate the recessionary gap. The MPC is .8, so the multiplier is 5.


How does the leakages and injections in the aggregate expenditure model influence the level of GDP of an economy?

How does the leakages and injections in the aggregate expenditure model influence the level of GDP of an economy?


What is the GDP gap?

A GDP gap is the difference between actual GDP and potential GDP. The calculation of the GDP gap is actual output minus potential output. If this calculation yields a positive number it is called an inflationary gap and indicates the increased growth of aggregate demand is outpacing the growth of aggregate supply which may possibly create inflation. If the calculation yields a negative number it is called a recessionary gap- possible signifying deflation.


What is the study of the nation's economy?

Macroeconomics is the study of a nation's economy. (Aggregate demand, aggregate supply, GDP, economics growth, inflation etc are all terms used in macroeconomics to describe one economy on its own)


In the keynesian model of aggregate expenditure real GDP is determined by what?

The aggregate expenditure model relates aggregate expenditures, which is the sum of planned level of consumption + investment + government purchases + net exports at a given price level, to the level of GDP. The key word here is planned. GDP is the same as aggregate expenditures(AE) except for one difference. People, firms and governments don't always spend what they had planned. So AE differs from GDP in that it deals exclusively with amounts firms intend to invest, and not necessarily taking into account amounts that will actually be invested as in GDP Where GDP is defined as C + I + G + NX and I = Ip + Iu (planned + unplanned investment), Aggregate Expenditures is defined as C + Ip + G + NX. AE (Aggregate Expenditure) is used in conjunction with GDP in the Aggregate Expenditures Model to predict future GDP direction. In this model, when AE = GDP then the economy is in equilibrium. According to this model an economy will move towards its equilibrium causing changes in the GDP.

Related questions

If full employment in this economy is 130 million will there be an inflationary expenditure gap or a recessionary gap What will be the consequence of this gap By how much would aggregate expenditures?

A recessionary gap. Equilibrium GDP is $600 billion, while full employment GDP is $700 billion. Employment will be 20 million less than at full employment. Aggregate expenditures would have to increase by $20 billion (= $700 billion -$680 billion) at each level of GDP to eliminate the recessionary gap. The MPC is .8, so the multiplier is 5.


How does the leakages and injections in the aggregate expenditure model influence the level of GDP of an economy?

How does the leakages and injections in the aggregate expenditure model influence the level of GDP of an economy?


What is the GDP gap?

A GDP gap is the difference between actual GDP and potential GDP. The calculation of the GDP gap is actual output minus potential output. If this calculation yields a positive number it is called an inflationary gap and indicates the increased growth of aggregate demand is outpacing the growth of aggregate supply which may possibly create inflation. If the calculation yields a negative number it is called a recessionary gap- possible signifying deflation.


What is the study of the nation's economy?

Macroeconomics is the study of a nation's economy. (Aggregate demand, aggregate supply, GDP, economics growth, inflation etc are all terms used in macroeconomics to describe one economy on its own)


In the keynesian model of aggregate expenditure real GDP is determined by what?

The aggregate expenditure model relates aggregate expenditures, which is the sum of planned level of consumption + investment + government purchases + net exports at a given price level, to the level of GDP. The key word here is planned. GDP is the same as aggregate expenditures(AE) except for one difference. People, firms and governments don't always spend what they had planned. So AE differs from GDP in that it deals exclusively with amounts firms intend to invest, and not necessarily taking into account amounts that will actually be invested as in GDP Where GDP is defined as C + I + G + NX and I = Ip + Iu (planned + unplanned investment), Aggregate Expenditures is defined as C + Ip + G + NX. AE (Aggregate Expenditure) is used in conjunction with GDP in the Aggregate Expenditures Model to predict future GDP direction. In this model, when AE = GDP then the economy is in equilibrium. According to this model an economy will move towards its equilibrium causing changes in the GDP.


If a some level of GDP the economy is experiencing an unintended decrease in inventories?

domestic output will increase


What is the relationship between aggregate expenditure and real GDP?

There is a direct proportional relationship between aggregate expenditure and real GDP. Aggregate expenditure is actually equal to real GDP. This is different from the planned expenditure.


What will happen to the equilibrium price level and the real GDP if the aggregate demand increases and aggregate supply decreases?

The equilibrium price level increases, but the real GDP change depends on how much aggregate demand and aggregate supply change by.


What will happen to the equilibrium price level and the real GDP if the aggregate demand decreases and aggregate supply increases?

The equilibrium price level increases, but the real GDP change depends on how much aggregate demand and aggregate supply change by.


What will happen to the equilibrium price level and the real GDP if the aggregate demand decreases and aggregate supply decreases?

The equilibrium price level increases, but the real GDP change depends on how much aggregate demand and aggregate supply change by.


If aggregate expenditures are less than GDP then?

inventories will increase and real GDP will decline.


Why doesn't an increase in aggregate demand translate directly into an increase in real GDP?

Why doesn't an increase in aggregate demand translate directly into an increase in real GDP