No, the elasticity of demand can be positive, negative, or zero. It depends on how the quantity demanded changes in response to a change in price.
Price elasticity of demand= percentage change in demand/percentage cgange in price 2 = % chnge in demand/10 % change in demand= 2*10 % change in demand= 20%
unrelated
its zero I'll do a bit of the explanation: Price Elasticity of Demand captures the shift in demand for rises in prices in percentage terms. Therefore if a commodity is such that no matter what price the producer charges the consumer has no alternative but to buy it, then for any price the demand for that commodity remains unaltered, maybe an example is a monopolist salt producer. Therefore the demand curve must be vertical, no matter what the price the quantity demanded is same, hence the price elasticity is zero. (dq/dp)(p/q) = 0, because (dq/dp) = 0
A vertical demand curve represents perfectly inelastic demand, meaning that the quantity demanded does not change regardless of price changes. Consumers will purchase the same amount of the good, regardless of its price, indicating that they have no substitutes or alternatives. In this case, the price elasticity of demand is equal to zero.
The two extreme ranges of price elasticity of demand are Zero and Infinity.
No, the elasticity of demand can be positive, negative, or zero. It depends on how the quantity demanded changes in response to a change in price.
Price elasticity of demand= percentage change in demand/percentage cgange in price 2 = % chnge in demand/10 % change in demand= 2*10 % change in demand= 20%
i) "If the demand curve is vertical, elasticity is zero"Price Elasticity of Demand captures the shift in demand for rises in prices in percentage terms. Therefore if a commodity is such that no matter what price the producer charges the consumer has no alternative but to buy it, then for any price the demand for that commodity remains unaltered, maybe an example is a monopolist salt producer. Therefore the demand curve must be vertical, no matter what the price the quantity demanded is same, hence the price elasticity is zero.
unrelated
its zero I'll do a bit of the explanation: Price Elasticity of Demand captures the shift in demand for rises in prices in percentage terms. Therefore if a commodity is such that no matter what price the producer charges the consumer has no alternative but to buy it, then for any price the demand for that commodity remains unaltered, maybe an example is a monopolist salt producer. Therefore the demand curve must be vertical, no matter what the price the quantity demanded is same, hence the price elasticity is zero. (dq/dp)(p/q) = 0, because (dq/dp) = 0
Although I have never taken an economics class discussing the formal definition of demand elasticity, I can guess at the answers. Elasticity is a measure of how much the quantity demanded of some product is swayed by changes in price. Economists traditionally place prices on the y-axis and quantity demanded on the x-axis. So if the demand curve is a vertical line, it means that no matter what the price is, customers will keep buying the same amount. This suggests that the elasticity is zero. The horizontal demand line is less meaningful because it shows one price at which customers may demand anything, while if the price is raised ever so slightly, we will fly off the demand curve altogether. Since tiny or even zero changes in price can cause large changes in demand, the elasticity is probably either infinite or undefined.
A vertical demand curve represents perfectly inelastic demand, meaning that the quantity demanded does not change regardless of price changes. Consumers will purchase the same amount of the good, regardless of its price, indicating that they have no substitutes or alternatives. In this case, the price elasticity of demand is equal to zero.
When an increase in income is not associated with a change in the demand of a good.
If demand is zero, then the equilibrium price is zero and it would be unwise to supply such a good or service.
The cross elasticity of demand measures how the quantity demanded of good Y responds to a change in the price of good X. It is calculated as the percentage change in the quantity demanded of good Y divided by the percentage change in the price of good X. A positive cross elasticity indicates that goods X and Y are substitutes, while a negative value suggests they are complements. If the elasticity is zero, it implies that the goods are unrelated.
If the demand is perfectly elastic in prices (that is, demand falls to zero if the price for consumers is raised even the slightest bit), then the entire tax incidence falls on the producer since the producer would rather face the entire tax burden than lose all his consumers. And if the demand is perfectly inelastic (doesn't change with change in commodity price) then the entire burden falls on the consumers. So higher the price elasticity of demand, higher would be the share of taxes borne by the producer. And higher the price elasticity of supply, lower the share borne by the producer, by similar logic.