No, they don't (thank Jove!).
However -- and this may be more than you need to know for now --, some forms of verbs do match their subjects in gender (and number and case). For instance the fourth principal part:
"The rose was given to the girl" is
"Rosa puellae data est."
"The books were given to the girl" is
"Libri puellae dati sunt."
Participles, gerundives, and all that fun stuff also take on gender.
I hope I explained this well. Perhaps someone else will fill you in on anything I may have missed.
Verbs do not have personal ending to denote gender, only nouns and adjectives do; but verbs do have persons. These are first person: I run- curro, 2nd person: you run curras, and third person: he/she/it runs currat. The gender is not specific
The verbs meaning "I win" are:lucrorlucrifaciopotiorconsequoradipiscorexpugnovictoriam adipiscorsuperovinco
Feminine
You can say, 'Sun is a masculine gender and moon is a feminine gender.', however, in English this is not true. English has no gender for nouns, all nouns are neutral and take a neutral verbs.
"Laid" does not have a gender as it is a verb describing an action or state of being. In Spanish, nouns have a gender (masculine or feminine), but verbs do not.
Feminine.
Masculine.
Masculine.
Navigo is first conjugation Latin, the translation being "I am sailing." Latin verbs come with tense and person indicators, telling you who (I, you, he/she/it, we, you all, they) does it and when.
Some examples of gendered verbs in Spanish are "trabajar" (to work), "cocinar" (to cook), and "limpiar" (to clean). These verbs change their endings based on the gender of the subject performing the action.
In Latin, it is marked masculine. In English, there is no grammatical gender.
Malus.