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This is an interesting question, to which there is no simple answer. Of course, English has not lost its inflections completely, as there is still the genitive ('s and s'), and of course the personal pronouns still inflect. It is tempting to say 'French influence' but this is not a convincing explanation, as Dutch, Frisian and Low German have also largely lost their inflectional endings, too. The reason may be some feature of the West Germanic languages that did not affect High German.

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