Very few. The only convention which he adheres to strictly is the convention that an actor should not exit at the end of one scene and enter at the beginning of the next. When the action is continuous, you can see how that might be useful.
In fiction, use of conventions leads to expectations.
Among the many words that Shakespeare coined, amazement was used in numerous plays. One of the earliest was in the Tempest, Act I, Scene 2, when Prospero tells Miranda, "Be collected; No more amazement; tell your piteous heart that there is no harm done."
Two ways to use possessive nouns: A possessive noun indicating ownership or possession. the car of my mother = my mother's car the teacher of our class = our class's teacher the coats of the children = the children's coats the covers of the books = the books' covers A possessive noun indicating origin or purpose. children's shoes; not shoes belonging to children, shoes intended for children ladies' room; the room isn't owned by a group of women, it's a room intended for their use Shakespeare's plays are not possessed by Shakespeare, they're plays by Shakespeare. today's newspaper, today can't own or possess, the newspaper originated today
yes it is, you should use the writing process with any kind of essay writing
No
blank verse
Characters and drama are not conventions. They are essential to the nature of what plays are. Something without drama or characters is not a play. Themes are drawn out of the character and drama by the viewer. They are inevitable in the telling of any story. Themes are not conventions either.
He wrotesonnets and epic poems. And plays of course.
Ovid. Many of Shakespeare's plays were adaptations of other works of literature, particularly those of Ovid.
A quill pen.
No, women were not on his plays.
Do you mean, what sort of handwriting would he use? The same handwriting he always used: secretary hand. Or do you mean "When did Shakespeare use iambic pentameter?" The answer is in sonnets and in a lot of the dialogue in his plays, when it was supposed to be more powerful.
One of the great advantage of the concept of writing, developed about 5000 years ago, is that you can still read and use the words of someone who is dead. Thus you can still read Jane Austen's novels long after Jane has died. Shakespeare does not have to be alive for you to perform his plays because they were written down.Shakespeare's plays were not performed in order to make Shakespeare happy. People did not say in 1616, "Thank heavens Shakespeare is dead so we don't have to perform his plays any more." On the contrary, they performed and continue to perform Shakespeare's plays because they are the best plays ever written in the English language. Shakespeare's death did not change that.
I use Sparknotes.com
Yes he did.
No, simply.
I'd use the word entertaining.