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Because it just is. A better question might be "Why do Americans pronounce zed as 'zee'?"

Zed is arguably better, since "zee" sounds very much like C (and to some extent like B, D, E, G, P, T, and V). On the one hand, there's some logic in pronouncing all consonants "the same," but on the other, it means we have to say "tee as in tango, v as in victor, z as in zulu" and any clear unambiguous pronunciation is better than that.

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Q: Why is zed used instead of zee for Z in non-American English speaking countries?
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