Strictly speaking, it's not. It's connected to the fact that the mechanical energy can be converted to IR radiation (or other kinds of EM waves), or it can be converted to the vibrations of the material's lattice and so on.
No, it is not possible to entirely convert a given amount of heat into mechanical energy due to inefficiencies and losses in the conversion process, as described by the second law of thermodynamics. Some heat will always be lost to the surroundings as a byproduct during the conversion process.
Yes. But it is a negligible amount comparing to the mechanical energy it produces.
Totally
A generator doesn't really have any significant amount of energy; it is supposed to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy - but it doesn't store it.
For example, if a heated gas expands, it can make things move.Please note that you can't convert ALL heat energy into mechanical energy or other types of useful energy; the maximum theoretical amount of heat you can convert is limited by the Carnot formula.
The amount by which a machine multiplies an input force is called mechanical advantage. It is calculated by dividing the output force by the input force.
The maximum amount of mechanical energy that can be converted to heat is equal to the total mechanical energy input. In any conversion process, there will always be losses due to inefficiencies, so the actual amount of mechanical energy that is converted to useful heat will be less than the input mechanical energy.
No. They both have totally different pin sizes and amount of pins. Socket AM2 has a lot more pins, socket a has 462 pins.
the amount of enerygy transferred by a force
Yes, but irrigation would be required and that means lots of water. A person would have to double the amount of precipitation at least.
mechanical advantage _ l l -
Internal energy at the microscopic level and thermodynamic or mechanical energy at the macroscopic level.