Assuming both were STD free, one had to have some sexual contact in order to be infected.
No because they only have sex with the one man who is married to them.
There is no state in the U.S. that prohibits individuals with a sexually transmitted disease (STD) from getting married. However, it is important to disclose your STD status to your partner and practice safe sex to prevent transmission.
From his girlfriend Selena Gomez she is the one who had the STD first
Not necessarily. If he has an STD, that does not mean he got it from sleeping around. He could have had it from birth (his parents) or he could have gotten it from a girl before he was married.
Aids.
Its a title you get when some one with the STD title on knifes you
Yes, one could. #include<iostream> int main() { int answer=42; std::cout<<answer<<std::endl; std::cout<<666<<std::endl; return(0); }
STD's and ulcers are not related. That is not to say a person with an ulcer could have one. But so could a person without one.....
No . . . an STD is a Sexually Transmitted Disease. HIV infection is just one of many STDs.
Yes. Even a rash accompanied by itching could seem to be an STD and just be a simple rash.
If he didn't have a STD and you misteriously get one from him.
Unprotected sex.